You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 63-year-old man presents to the ambulatory medical clinic with symptoms of dysphagia and ‘heartburn’, which he states have become more troublesome over the past year. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and GERD. He takes lisinopril for hypertension and has failed multiple different therapies for his GERD. On physical exam, he is somewhat tender to palpation over his upper abdomen. Barium swallow demonstrates a subdiaphragmatic gastroesophageal junction, with herniation of the gastric fundus into the left hemithorax. Given the following options, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient’s underlying condition? Options: A) Lifestyle modification B) Combined antacid therapy C) Continue on Omeprazole D) Surgical gastropexy Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.