EMC_Eng_MT2_50_Questions nividk300604@gmail.com Switch accounts * Indicates required question Email * This is a required question 1. A patient is found to have comorbidities before elective surgery. What is the main purpose of the anesthesiologist's preoperative assessment of these conditions? 2 points To determine the degree of anesthetic risk and the extent of preparation required To determine the duration of the surgical procedure To choose the surgical approach To establish the definitive surgical diagnosis To determine when postoperative sutures should be removed 2. Which set of parameters most comprehensively describes a patient's basic vital functions during anesthesia? 2 points Blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, SpO₂, and body temperature Height, body weight, urine output, and body temperature Hemoglobin, white blood cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and body temperature Heart rate, body weight, hemoglobin level, and urine output Height, respiratory rate, blood group, and glucose level 3. A pronounced motor response to surgical manipulation persists during general anesthesia. Inadequacy of which component of anesthesia should be assessed first? 2 points Analgesia Premedication Intravenous fluid therapy Oxygen therapy Transfusion therapy 4. Which parameter is used to assess blood oxygen saturation? 2 points SpO₂ Blood pressure Body temperature Pulse rate Urine output 5. A patient has shortness of breath, an increased respiratory rate, and decreased SpO₂. Which disorder should be suspected first? 2 points Acute respiratory failure An isolated disturbance of fluid balance A preagonal state Isolated hyperthermia Gastrointestinal dysfunction 6. Which parameter allows continuous, noninvasive assessment of hemoglobin oxygen saturation? 2 points SpO₂ Urine output Body temperature Central venous pressure Heart rate 7. Following significant blood loss, a patient develops tachycardia, decreased blood pressure, and signs of hypoperfusion. Which type of shock is most likely? 2 points Hypovolemic Cardiogenic Anaphylactic Septic Neurogenic 8. Which parameter is particularly important for ongoing assessment of fluid balance in a patient receiving intravenous fluid therapy? 2 points Urine output Respiratory rate Pupil size Skin temperature Heart rate 9. An unconscious adult patient has no normal breathing and no carotid pulse. Which action should be performed without delay? 2 points Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation Measure body temperature Determine the blood group Perform laboratory electrolyte testing Obtain a chest X-ray 10. Which ECG rhythm during cardiac arrest is non-shockable? 2 points Asystole Ventricular fibrillation Pulseless ventricular tachycardia Pulseless polymorphic ventricular tachycardia Coarse ventricular fibrillation 11. Which ECG rhythm is most frequently the immediate cause of sudden cardiac death? 2 points Asystole Ventricular fibrillation Complete atrioventricular block Sinus bradycardia Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia 12. Which method is most informative for the initial diagnosis of hemorrhagic stroke? 2 points Non-contrast CT of the brain Urinalysis ECG Lumbar puncture as the first diagnostic method Skull radiography 13. Which finding is most characteristic of true cardiogenic shock? 2 points Increased blood pressure Polyuria Reduced cardiac output, hypotension, and impaired tissue perfusion Isolated tachycardia without hypotension A brief episode of syncope 14. Which treatments are contraindicated in acute respiratory failure? 2 points Bronchodilators for bronchospasm Oxygen therapy Mechanical ventilation when indicated Opioid analgesics and hypnotics in the absence of vital indications Glucocorticoids when indicated by the underlying cause 15. What does Safar's triple airway maneuver include? 2 points Head tilt, jaw thrust, and mouth opening Insertion of an airway adjunct only Cleaning the oral cavity, administering oxygen, and intubation Placing the patient in the prone position Massaging the neck and closing the mouth 16. Which drug predominantly stimulates bronchial β2-adrenoceptors? 2 points Atropine Salbutamol Furosemide Digoxin Nitroglycerin 17. What is the main clinical symptom of bronchial asthma? 2 points Rust-colored sputum An attack of severe expiratory breathlessness Isolated cyanosis Hemoptysis Persistent high temperature 18. What forms the basis of emergency treatment for status asthmaticus? 2 points A mucolytic alone Glucocorticoids and intensive bronchodilator therapy An opioid analgesic A β-blocker Diuretic monotherapy 19. What is the first-line drug for anaphylactic shock? 2 points Suprastin Prednisolone Epinephrine (adrenaline) Aminophylline (Euphyllin) Cordiamin 20. What is the optimal position for a patient with anaphylactic shock without pronounced respiratory failure? 2 points Sitting Semi-sitting Supine with the legs elevated Standing Prone 21. Which drugs most commonly cause anaphylactic shock? 2 points Antibiotics Vitamins Diuretics Antacids Hepatoprotective agents 22. Which finding is most characteristic of pulmonary hemorrhage? 2 points Dark blood resembling coffee grounds Coughing up bright red, frothy blood Black stools Bleeding from the nose only Purulent sputum without blood 23. How should a patient with suspected pulmonary hemorrhage be transported? 2 points On foot Sitting on a stretcher under medical supervision In the prone position Without oxygen Independently 24. Which condition is not a typical cause of upper airway obstruction? 2 points Backward displacement of the tongue Foreign body aspiration Vomit Hiccups Laryngeal edema 25. Which finding is most characteristic of bronchial obstruction syndrome? 2 points Prolonged expiration Prolonged inspiration Isolated bradycardia Marked gross hematuria Complete absence of cough 26. Which drug is contraindicated during an attack of bronchial asthma? 2 points Salbutamol Fenoterol Morphine Ipratropium A glucocorticoid for a severe attack 27. Which cerebrospinal fluid changes are most characteristic of tuberculous meningitis? 2 points Decreased protein and increased glucose Increased protein and decreased glucose An increased red blood cell count only Markedly increased cerebrospinal fluid glucose Complete absence of cells 28. What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning? 2 points Naloxone Atropine Acizol Methylene blue Unithiol as the sole antidote 29. What is the treatment of choice for severe carbon monoxide poisoning? 2 points Forced diuresis alone Hyperbaric oxygen therapy when indicated Gastric lavage Insulin therapy Hemodialysis in all cases 30. What is the most characteristic radiographic sign of acute intestinal obstruction? 2 points Kloiber's cups (air–fluid levels) Pleural effusion A ring-shaped cardiac shadow Focal pulmonary infiltration Pneumothorax 31. What causes Lyell's syndrome? 2 points Food allergens Insect allergens Medications Bacteria and viruses Household allergens 32. Which sign is characteristic of Lyell's syndrome? 2 points Waterhouse–Friderichsen Henoch–Schönlein Werlhof Nikolsky Filatov–Koplik 33. Which sign is considered positive in infectious-toxic shock? 2 points Waterhouse–Friderichsen Henoch–Schönlein Werlhof Nikolsky Filatov–Koplik 34. What should an emergency medical physician do in a case of anaphylactic shock? 2 points Administer epinephrine intracardially Transport the patient to a healthcare facility Provide immediate medical care at the scene Call a specialized ambulance team Perform gastric lavage 35. What is the main mediator of urticaria? 2 points Acetylcholine Prostaglandin Leukotrienes Histamine Heparin 36. What is the in-hospital management of a ruptured fallopian tube with grade 2–3 hemorrhagic shock? 2 points Treat shock, then perform laparotomy and salpingectomy once the patient is stable Treat shock, then perform laparoscopy and salpingectomy once the patient is stable Perform immediate laparotomy to control the source of bleeding while simultaneously treating shock Perform immediate laparoscopy while simultaneously treating shock Treat shock and perform culdocentesis to clarify the diagnosis 37. Which finding does not indicate placental separation during the third stage of labor? 2 points A change in the shape of the uterus and displacement of its fundus Descent of the external segment of the umbilical cord Failure of the umbilical cord to retract after a trial bearing-down effort Cessation of umbilical cord pulsation Increased bleeding from the genital tract 38. When is out-of-hospital delivery indicated? 2 points When bearing-down efforts occur every 2–3 minutes and the perineum is bulging When the fetal head becomes visible during contractions and begins to crown When strong contractions accompanied by bearing-down efforts begin At the onset of bearing-down efforts When bearing-down efforts begin and the membranes rupture 39. What amount of blood loss during childbirth is physiological? 2 points Up to 400 mL Up to 500 mL Up to 600 mL Up to 800 mL Up to 1000 mL 40. When should the vehicle be stopped and delivery attended? 2 points At the onset of bearing-down efforts As soon as the fetal head begins to appear at the vaginal opening during contractions As soon as the cervix is fully dilated As soon as the membranes rupture The vehicle does not need to stop for delivery 41. How is oxytocin administered during childbirth? 2 points 10 IU intravenously when the head becomes visible and crowns 10 IU intramuscularly immediately after the baby is born 10 IU intramuscularly when the head becomes visible and crowns 5 IU intramuscularly immediately after the fetus is born 20 IU by intravenous infusion immediately after the baby is born 42. What is a criterion for the onset of labor? 2 points Passage of the mucus plug Rupture of the membranes A sustained increase in uterine tone Descent of the presenting fetal part The development of two contractions in 10 minutes 43. Which statement about the third stage of labor during an out-of-hospital delivery is incorrect? 2 points A venous catheter should be inserted Administer 10 IU of oxytocin intramuscularly at the beginning of the third stage The woman cannot be transported during the third stage Signs of placental separation should be monitored When signs of placental separation appear, take measures to facilitate delivery of the placenta 44. The surgical pedicle of an ovarian cyst includes all of the following except which structure? 2 points The infundibulopelvic ligament The ovarian ligament The mesovarium The fallopian tube The round ligament 45. What is included in the surgical pedicle of an ovarian cyst? 2 points The ovarian ligament The mesosalpinx The infundibulopelvic ligament The fallopian tube All of the above 46. What is the earliest gestational age at which a gestational sac can be detected by transabdominal ultrasonography? 2 points 1 week 2 weeks 3 weeks 4 weeks 5 weeks 47. What is the shock index? 2 points The ratio of pulse rate to systolic blood pressure, equal to 1 The ratio of pulse rate to diastolic blood pressure, equal to 1 The ratio of pulse rate to systolic blood pressure, equal to 0.5 The ratio of pulse rate to diastolic blood pressure, equal to 0.5 The ratio of systolic blood pressure to pulse rate, equal to 0.5 48. A 30-year-old woman complains of cramping lower abdominal pain. She underwent a mini-abortion two weeks ago. The uterus is slightly enlarged, with a tender, soft mass beside it. Elevation of the uterus is painful; the posterior vaginal fornix is bulging and tender, and there is bloody spotting. What is the diagnosis? 2 points Hydatidiform mole Ovarian tumor Salpingo-oophoritis Endometritis Ectopic pregnancy 49. To what level does systolic blood pressure fall in severe traumatic shock? 2 points 60 mmHg or lower 60–80 mmHg 80–100 mmHg 100–120 mmHg 120–140 mmHg 50. What is the most comprehensive prehospital care for a casualty with traumatic shock? 2 points Immobilization of fractures and transport to hospital Local anesthetic block at the fracture site, immobilization, and transport to hospital Rapid transport to hospital Intravenous fluid therapy, respiratory support, pain relief, immobilization for transport, and transport to hospital Intravenous fluid therapy, respiratory support, immobilization of fractures, and transport to hospital This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google. - Contact form owner - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy Does this form look suspicious? Report Google Forms

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Answer key
  1. To determine the degree of anesthetic risk and the extent of preparation required
  2. Blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, SpO₂, and body temperature
  3. Analgesia
  4. SpO₂
  5. Acute respiratory failure
  6. SpO₂
  7. Hypovolemic shock
  8. Urine output
  9. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  10. Asystole
  11. Ventricular fibrillation
  12. Non-contrast CT of the brain
  13. Reduced cardiac output, hypotension, and impaired tissue perfusion
  14. Opioid analgesics and hypnotics in the absence of vital indications
  15. Head tilt, jaw thrust, and mouth opening
  16. Salbutamol
  17. An attack of severe expiratory breathlessness
  18. Glucocorticoids and intensive bronchodilator therapy
  19. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
  20. Supine with the legs elevated
  21. Antibiotics
  22. Coughing up bright red, frothy blood
  23. Sitting on a stretcher under medical supervision
  24. Hiccups
  25. Prolonged expiration
  26. Morphine
  27. Increased protein and decreased glucose
  28. Atropine
  29. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy when indicated
  30. Kloiber's cups (air-fluid levels)
  31. Medications
  32. Nikolsky sign
  33. Waterhouse-Friderichsen sign/syndrome
  34. Provide immediate medical care at the scene
  35. Histamine
  36. Perform immediate laparotomy to control the source of bleeding while simultaneously treating shock
  37. Cessation of umbilical cord pulsation
  38. When the fetal head becomes visible during contractions and begins to crown
  39. Up to 500 mL
  40. As soon as the fetal head begins to appear at the vaginal opening during contractions
  41. 10 IU intramuscularly immediately after the baby is born
  42. The development of two contractions in 10 minutes
  43. The woman cannot be transported during the third stage
  44. The round ligament
  45. All of the above
  46. 5 weeks
  47. The ratio of pulse rate to systolic blood pressure, equal to 0.5
  48. Ectopic pregnancy
  49. 60-80 mmHg
  50. Intravenous fluid therapy, respiratory support, pain relief, immobilization for transport, and transport to hospital
A few questions use older emergency-care teaching language, especially the obstetric and shock-index items. For actual clinical care, follow local emergency and obstetric protocols.
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