Here are UHS-style MCQs from the Neoplasia chapter — single best answer format, clinically oriented, with explanations:
Neoplasia - UHS Style MCQs
Robbins Pathology
Q1. A 45-year-old woman presents with a painless breast lump. Biopsy shows a well-encapsulated mass with uniform cells arranged in glandular pattern, no mitoses, and no invasion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Adenocarcinoma
- B) Fibrosarcoma
- C) Fibroadenoma ✓
- D) Phyllodes tumor
- E) Intraductal papilloma
Explanation: Well-encapsulated, no invasion, no atypical mitoses = benign tumor. Breast fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast tumor in young women. Adenocarcinoma would show invasion and nuclear atypia.
Q2. A tumor biopsy shows cells with marked variation in size and shape, hyperchromatic nuclei, increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, and tripolar mitotic figures. These features are characteristic of:
- A) Dysplasia
- B) Metaplasia
- C) Hyperplasia
- D) Anaplasia ✓
- E) Carcinoma in situ
Explanation: Anaplasia features = pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, increased N:C ratio, atypical (tripolar/quadripolar) mitoses, and tumor giant cells. This is a hallmark of poorly differentiated malignant tumors.
Q3. A 6-year-old boy presents with leukocoria (white pupillary reflex). Genetic analysis reveals loss of both alleles of a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13q14. This finding best supports which concept?
- A) Philadelphia chromosome
- B) Oncogene activation
- C) Knudson's two-hit hypothesis ✓
- D) Warburg effect
- E) EMT
Explanation: Retinoblastoma is the classic example of Knudson's two-hit hypothesis. Both alleles of RB1 (13q14) must be lost. In hereditary form: 1st hit = germline, 2nd hit = somatic. In sporadic form: both hits are somatic.
Q4. Which chromosomal translocation is associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?
- A) t(8;14)
- B) t(14;18)
- C) t(15;17)
- D) t(9;22) ✓
- E) t(11;22)
Explanation: t(9;22) = Philadelphia chromosome → BCR-ABL fusion gene → constitutively active tyrosine kinase → CML. t(8;14) = Burkitt lymphoma (c-MYC). t(14;18) = Follicular lymphoma (BCL-2). t(15;17) = AML-M3 (PML-RARA).
Q5. A 55-year-old smoker develops hemoptysis. Biopsy reveals a tumor with ectopic ACTH production causing Cushing syndrome. What is the most likely tumor?
- A) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
- B) Large cell carcinoma
- C) Carcinoid tumor
- D) Small cell carcinoma of lung ✓
- E) Adenocarcinoma of lung
Explanation: Small cell carcinoma (neuroendocrine origin) is the classic cause of ectopic ACTH → Cushing syndrome, and ectopic ADH → SIADH. Squamous cell carcinoma causes hypercalcemia via PTHrP.
Q6. A 60-year-old man with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung presents with confusion, constipation, and serum calcium of 13.5 mg/dL. Serum PTH is suppressed. What is the mechanism?
- A) Bony metastases releasing calcium
- B) Ectopic calcitonin production
- C) Vitamin D overproduction
- D) PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related protein) secretion ✓
- E) Ectopic PTH production
Explanation: Squamous cell carcinoma of lung is the most common cause of humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy via PTHrP. PTHrP mimics PTH action but is not detected by PTH assay, so PTH is suppressed. This is a paraneoplastic syndrome.
Q7. The protein product of the BCL-2 oncogene (overexpressed in follicular lymphoma via t(14;18)) promotes cancer by:
- A) Activating caspase cascade
- B) Increasing cell cycle progression
- C) Activating RAS signaling
- D) Inhibiting apoptosis ✓
- E) Promoting angiogenesis
Explanation: BCL-2 is an anti-apoptotic protein located on the outer mitochondrial membrane. Its overexpression prevents cytochrome C release, blocking the intrinsic apoptotic pathway. Cancer cells accumulate because they cannot die, not because they divide faster.
Q8. A factory worker exposed to vinyl chloride for 20 years develops a malignant liver tumor. Histology shows anastomosing vascular channels lined by malignant endothelial cells. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
- B) Cholangiocarcinoma
- C) Hepatic adenoma
- D) Angiosarcoma of the liver ✓
- E) Hemangioendothelioma
Explanation: Vinyl chloride → angiosarcoma (hemangiosarcoma) of the liver. This is a classic UHS association. Aflatoxin B1 and HBV/HCV → hepatocellular carcinoma. Arsenic also causes angiosarcoma of the liver.
Q9. A 25-year-old woman has a family history of multiple colonic polyps. Her father underwent colectomy at age 35. Genetic testing reveals a germline APC mutation. Without surgery, what is her lifetime risk of colorectal carcinoma?
- A) 25%
- B) 50%
- C) 75%
- D) 100% ✓
- E) 30%
Explanation: Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) caused by germline APC mutation (5q21) leads to hundreds to thousands of colonic polyps. Without prophylactic colectomy, 100% of patients develop colorectal carcinoma by age 40-50.
Q10. Which tumor marker is MOST useful for monitoring recurrence after treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma?
- A) CEA
- B) CA-125
- C) PSA
- D) AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein) ✓
- E) CA 19-9
Explanation: AFP is elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors. It is used for monitoring response to treatment and detecting recurrence. CEA = colon cancer. CA-125 = ovarian cancer. PSA = prostate cancer. CA 19-9 = pancreatic cancer.
Q11. HPV types 16 and 18 cause cervical carcinoma primarily through which mechanism?
- A) Integration into RAS proto-oncogene
- B) Activation of BCL-2
- C) E6 degrades p53; E7 inactivates RB ✓
- D) E6 activates telomerase; E7 activates MYC
- E) Chronic inflammation causing microsatellite instability
Explanation: High-risk HPV (16, 18) encodes E6 and E7 oncoproteins. E6 binds and targets p53 for ubiquitin-mediated degradation. E7 binds and inactivates RB, releasing E2F → unchecked S-phase entry. Both tumor suppressor pathways are simultaneously disabled.
Q12. A 35-year-old man develops multiple café-au-lait spots, axillary freckling, and peripheral nerve tumors. His NF1 gene is mutated. NF1 encodes neurofibromin, which functions as a:
- A) Cyclin-dependent kinase activator
- B) Transcription factor
- C) RAS-GTPase activating protein (GAP) ✓
- D) Receptor tyrosine kinase
- E) Anti-apoptotic protein
Explanation: Neurofibromin (NF1 gene product) is a RAS-GAP - it accelerates GTP hydrolysis on RAS, converting active RAS-GTP to inactive RAS-GDP. When NF1 is mutated/lost, RAS remains constitutively active → uncontrolled proliferation. This is a classic TSG acting as an indirect RAS regulator.
Q13. A 70-year-old man with known prostate cancer develops back pain. X-ray shows increased bone density at lumbar vertebrae. What type of metastasis is this?
- A) Osteolytic metastasis
- B) Mixed metastasis
- C) Osteoblastic metastasis ✓
- D) Pathological fracture
- E) Paget disease
Explanation: Prostate cancer classically causes osteoblastic (sclerotic/dense) bone metastases - increased bone density on X-ray. Most other cancers (breast, lung, kidney, thyroid, myeloma) cause osteolytic (punched-out) lesions. Mnemonic: "Prostate = bone-forming" (osteoBLAStic).
Q14. Which of the following best describes the Warburg effect in cancer cells?
- A) Increased oxidative phosphorylation in hypoxic conditions
- B) Decreased glucose uptake in rapidly dividing cells
- C) Aerobic glycolysis - preferential use of glycolysis even in presence of oxygen ✓
- D) Fatty acid oxidation as the primary energy source
- E) Mitochondrial overactivity in tumor cells
Explanation: The Warburg effect = aerobic glycolysis - cancer cells convert glucose to lactate even when oxygen is abundant. This is inefficient for ATP but provides carbon skeletons, NADPH, and ribose-5-phosphate for biosynthesis (anabolic precursors) needed for rapid growth. Basis of FDG-PET scanning.
Q15. A 40-year-old woman develops bilateral breast cancer and ovarian cancer. Her sister had breast cancer at 32. Which gene mutation is most likely?
- A) TP53
- B) APC
- C) RB1
- D) BRCA1 or BRCA2 ✓
- E) MLH1
Explanation: BRCA1 (17q) and BRCA2 (13q) are TSGs involved in homologous recombination DNA repair. Germline mutations predispose to breast cancer (lifetime risk 50-85%) and ovarian cancer (15-45%). Young age at diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, and family history are hallmarks of hereditary BRCA-related cancer.
Q16. EBV infection is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Burkitt lymphoma
- B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- C) Hodgkin lymphoma
- D) Adult T-cell leukemia ✓
- E) Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
Explanation: Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is caused by HTLV-1 (Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1), not EBV. EBV is associated with Burkitt lymphoma (especially African endemic type), nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin lymphoma (mixed cellularity type), and post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder.
Q17. A 50-year-old woman with Lynch syndrome (HNPCC) has a defect in mismatch repair genes. Tumor DNA analysis would most likely show:
- A) Loss of heterozygosity at 17p
- B) Gene amplification of HER2
- C) t(9;22) translocation
- D) Microsatellite instability (MSI-H) ✓
- E) CpG island hypomethylation
Explanation: Mismatch repair (MMR) deficiency leads to accumulation of errors at microsatellite sequences (short tandem repeats) → microsatellite instability (MSI-H). Lynch syndrome is caused by germline mutations in MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2. MSI-H tumors respond well to PD-1 checkpoint inhibitors (pembrolizumab).
Q18. A child presents with hepatomegaly, and imaging shows a large abdominal mass. Serum AFP is markedly elevated. Histology shows primitive tubular structures with fetal hepatocyte-like cells. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
- B) Wilms tumor
- C) Neuroblastoma
- D) Hepatoblastoma ✓
- E) Yolk sac tumor
Explanation: Hepatoblastoma is the most common primary liver malignancy in children (<5 years). It shows elevated AFP, fetal/embryonal histology, and arises from hepatic progenitor cells. APC/β-catenin mutations are common. HCC is rare in children (associated with chronic HBV).
Q19. Which of the following carcinogens requires metabolic activation (indirect carcinogen) before becoming mutagenic?
- A) Nitrogen mustard
- B) Cyclophosphamide (as administered)
- C) Benzo[a]pyrene ✓
- D) Bis-chloromethyl ether
- E) β-propiolactone
Explanation: Benzo[a]pyrene (in cigarette smoke/grilled meat) is a procarcinogen that requires CYP450 (especially CYP1A1) to be converted to its active carcinogenic epoxide form (benzo[a]pyrene-7,8-diol-9,10-epoxide). Direct-acting carcinogens (nitrogen mustard, β-propiolactone) do not require metabolic activation.
Q20. A patient with small cell lung carcinoma develops muscle weakness that improves with repetitive stimulation (unlike myasthenia gravis). Anti-VGCC antibodies are detected. This paraneoplastic syndrome is:
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Subacute cerebellar degeneration
- C) Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome ✓
- D) Dermatomyositis
- E) Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation: Lambert-Eaton syndrome = paraneoplastic syndrome in small cell lung cancer. Antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC) at presynaptic nerve terminals impair ACh release. Key distinction from MG: Lambert-Eaton IMPROVES with repetitive stimulation (facilitation); MG WORSENS.
Q21. During tumor progression, cancer cells lose E-cadherin expression and gain vimentin and N-cadherin. This process facilitates metastasis and is called:
- A) Clonal evolution
- B) Tumor dormancy
- C) Angiogenic switch
- D) Epithelial-Mesenchymal Transition (EMT) ✓
- E) Anoikis resistance
Explanation: EMT is a process where epithelial cells lose cell-cell adhesion (E-cadherin loss) and gain mesenchymal properties (vimentin, N-cadherin, fibronectin). Key transcription factors: Snail, Slug, Twist, ZEB1/2. This enables invasion and intravasation - critical early steps in metastasis cascade.
Q22. Which of the following tumor markers is specifically elevated in medullary carcinoma of thyroid?
- A) Thyroglobulin
- B) TSH
- C) AFP
- D) Calcitonin ✓
- E) CA-125
Explanation: Medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from parafollicular C-cells which produce calcitonin. Calcitonin is used as both a diagnostic marker and for monitoring recurrence/metastasis. It is also used for screening family members in MEN2 (where RET proto-oncogene is mutated).
Q23. A 30-year-old man has multiple endocrine tumors involving the pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreas. His germline mutation is in the MEN1 gene. What cancer is he at risk for due to an activating mutation in which of the following is associated with MEN2?
- A) MEN1 gene - pheochromocytoma
- B) VHL gene - adrenal medulla tumor
- C) NF1 gene - medullary thyroid cancer
- D) RET proto-oncogene - medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma ✓
- E) APC gene - colorectal cancer
Explanation: MEN2 is caused by germline activating mutations in the RET proto-oncogene (not a TSG, but an oncogene). RET encodes a receptor tyrosine kinase. MEN2A: medullary thyroid carcinoma + pheochromocytoma + hyperparathyroidism. MEN2B adds marfanoid habitus and mucosal neuromas. Important: RET is a proto-oncogene, not a TSG - gain-of-function mutation.
Q24. On immunohistochemistry, a metastatic tumor of unknown primary stains positive for cytokeratin (CK) but negative for LCA (CD45), S-100, and vimentin. What is the most likely origin?
- A) Lymphoma
- B) Melanoma
- C) Sarcoma
- D) Carcinoma ✓
- E) Glioma
Explanation: IHC markers: CK+ = carcinoma (epithelial origin). LCA/CD45+ = lymphoma. S-100+ = melanoma, neural tumors, Langerhans cells. Vimentin+ = sarcoma, melanoma, lymphoma. Desmin+ = muscle tumors. GFAP+ = glioma. Positivity for CK alone points strongly to carcinoma.
Q25. In the Vogelstein multistep carcinogenesis model of colorectal cancer, which genetic event is the FIRST (initiating) step?
- A) RAS mutation
- B) TP53 loss
- C) SMAD4 loss
- D) APC loss ✓
- E) MLH1 silencing
Explanation: The Vogelgram for colorectal cancer: APC loss (first hit, initiating) → hyperproliferative epithelium → KRAS mutation → early adenoma → SMAD2/4 loss (TGF-β pathway) → late adenoma → TP53 loss → invasive carcinoma → further alterations → metastasis. APC loss is the gate-keeper event (chromosome 5q21).
Quick Revision - Exam Tips
| High-Yield Association | Answer |
|---|
| Most common oncogene mutated in cancers | RAS |
| Most common TSG mutated in cancers | TP53 |
| Hallmark of malignancy | Metastasis |
| t(9;22) = | CML (BCR-ABL) |
| t(8;14) = | Burkitt lymphoma (c-MYC) |
| t(14;18) = | Follicular lymphoma (BCL-2) |
| t(15;17) = | AML-M3 (PML-RARA) |
| Vinyl chloride → | Angiosarcoma liver |
| Asbestos alone → | Mesothelioma |
| SCC lung → paraneoplastic | PTHrP → hypercalcemia |
| Small cell lung → paraneoplastic | ACTH (Cushing) + ADH (SIADH) |
| E6 (HPV) destroys | p53 |
| E7 (HPV) destroys | RB |
| MEN2 gene | RET (proto-oncogene) |
| FAP risk of CRC | 100% |
25 UHS-pattern MCQs covering all major topics of Neoplasia - Robbins Pathology