You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: An 11-month-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. He is growing along with the 75th percentile and meeting all milestones. Physical examination shows a poorly rugated scrotum. The palpation of the scrotum shows only 1 testicle. A 2nd testicle is palpated in the inguinal canal. The examination of the penis shows a normal urethral meatus. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Options: A) Chorionic gonadotropin therapy B) Exploratory laparoscopy C) Orchiectomy D) Orchiopexy Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.