A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which is the most significant pathophysiology that contributes to the development of this condition? a) Decreased testosterone production b) Increased insulin-like growth factor c) Increased estrogen levels d) Reduced blood supply
"Serum estrogen levels increase in men with age, absolutely or relative to testosterone levels. There is also suggestive evidence that intraprostatic levels of estrogen are increased in men with BPH." — Campbell-Walsh-Wein Urology, 12th ed.
| Option | Verdict | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| (a) Decreased testosterone | ❌ | Testosterone actually decreases with age. However, this is not the driver of BPH. BPH occurs because of increased sensitivity to androgens (via DHT and estrogen-mediated AR upregulation), not because of more testosterone. Men castrated before puberty do not develop BPH. |
| (b) Increased insulin-like growth factor (IGF) | ❌ | Growth factors (IGF, FGF, EGF, TGF) play a secondary paracrine/autocrine role in prostatic cell proliferation but are downstream of hormonal signaling — not the primary/most significant pathophysiologic mechanism. |
| (d) Reduced blood supply | ❌ | Vascular changes (e.g., from diabetes or metabolic syndrome) may be a risk factor for BPH, but reduced blood supply is not a recognized primary pathophysiologic mechanism. |