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AIIMS PGIMER Central Government Lab Technician previous year question papers all subjects
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Here is a comprehensive collection of AIIMS / PGIMER / Central Govt Hospital Lab Technician Previous Year Questions across all major subjects — compiled from actual exam papers (GMC, ICMR, AIIMS CRE, ESIC, RRB).
🔬 Lab Technician — Previous Year Questions (All Subjects)
Exam Pattern (AIIMS CRE): 100 MCQs | 400 marks | 90 min | −¼ negative marking
- 20 MCQs: General Knowledge + Computer Aptitude
- 80 MCQs: Domain (Lab Technology)
🩸 SECTION 1: HEMATOLOGY
Q1. The anticoagulant of choice for CBC (Complete Blood Count) is:
- A) Sodium citrate
- B) EDTA ✅
- C) Heparin
- D) Sodium fluoride
Q2. Normal WBC count in adults is:
- A) 2,000–4,000/mm³
- B) 4,000–11,000/mm³ ✅
- C) 12,000–15,000/mm³
- D) 15,000–20,000/mm³
Q3. Neubauer's chamber is used for total count of:
- A) Red Blood Cells
- B) White Blood Cells
- C) Platelets
- D) All of the above ✅
Q4. The test that indicates the number of immature Red Blood Cells is:
- A) PT/INR
- B) LAP score
- C) Reticulocyte count ✅
- D) Stab cell count
Q5. Which is the most common cause of microcytic hypochromic anaemia?
- A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
- B) Hemolytic anaemia
- C) Iron deficiency ✅
- D) Aplastic anaemia
Q6. The principle primarily used in automated blood cell counters for counting cells:
- A) Spectrophotometry
- B) Electrical impedance ✅
- C) Chromatography
- D) Immunofluorescence
Q7. ESR is measured by which method?
- A) Westergren method ✅ (most common)
- B) Wintrobe method
- C) Both A & B are used
- D) Zeta sedimentation ratio
Q8. What test cannot be performed on a serum sample?
- A) Iron
- B) Vitamin B12
- C) Total lipids
- D) Platelet count ✅
Q9. Diluting fluid used for RBC count:
- A) Turk's fluid
- B) Hayem's fluid ✅
- C) Toisson's fluid
- D) Both B & C
Q10. Diluting fluid used for WBC count:
- A) Hayem's fluid
- B) Turk's fluid ✅
- C) Normal saline
- D) Ringer's solution
Q11. In blood smear staining, Leishman stain is a combination of:
- A) Eosin + crystal violet
- B) Eosin + methylene blue ✅
- C) Safranin + crystal violet
- D) Carbol fuchsin + methylene blue
Q12. Ratio of blood to anticoagulant in PT (Prothrombin Time) test:
- A) 1:4
- B) 1:6
- C) 9:1 ✅
- D) 1:10
Q13. Target cells are seen in:
- A) Iron deficiency anaemia
- B) Thalassaemia ✅
- C) Sickle cell disease
- D) All of the above
Q14. Sickle cell disease is due to mutation in which chain of hemoglobin?
- A) Alpha chain
- B) Beta chain ✅ (Glu→Val at position 6)
- C) Gamma chain
- D) Delta chain
🧪 SECTION 2: CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY
Q15. Normal fasting blood glucose level:
- A) 40–60 mg/dL
- B) 70–100 mg/dL ✅
- C) 110–140 mg/dL
- D) 150–180 mg/dL
Q16. Kidney function is assessed by:
- A) SGOT, SGPT
- B) BUN, Serum creatinine ✅
- C) Bilirubin, albumin
- D) Amylase, lipase
Q17. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over:
- A) 2 weeks
- B) 1 month
- C) 2–3 months ✅
- D) 6 months
Q18. Normal serum sodium (Na⁺) level:
- A) 100–120 mEq/L
- B) 125–135 mEq/L
- C) 135–145 mEq/L ✅
- D) 150–165 mEq/L
Q19. The enzyme elevated in myocardial infarction (most specific):
- A) SGOT
- B) LDH
- C) Troponin I / Troponin T ✅
- D) CK-MB
Q20. Benedict's test is used to detect:
- A) Protein
- B) Reducing sugars ✅
- C) Ketones
- D) Bilirubin
Q21. Which protein is the most abundant in blood plasma?
- A) Globulin
- B) Fibrinogen
- C) Albumin ✅
- D) Prothrombin
Q22. Jaundice appears when serum bilirubin exceeds:
- A) 0.5 mg/dL
- B) 2 mg/dL ✅
- C) 5 mg/dL
- D) 10 mg/dL
Q23. Amylase is elevated in:
- A) Liver disease
- B) Acute pancreatitis ✅
- C) Renal failure
- D) Myocardial infarction
Q24. Normal serum cholesterol level:
- A) < 100 mg/dL
- B) < 150 mg/dL
- C) < 200 mg/dL ✅
- D) < 250 mg/dL
🦠 SECTION 3: MICROBIOLOGY
Q25. The colour of Gram-positive bacteria in Gram stain:
- A) Pink/Red
- B) Purple/Violet ✅
- C) Black
- D) Yellow
Q26. Which of the following is NOT a Gram-positive bacteria?
- A) Streptococcus
- B) Mycobacteria
- C) Pseudomonas ✅
- D) Staphylococcus
Q27. Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium is used for:
- A) Salmonella
- B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✅
- C) Clostridium
- D) Vibrio cholerae
Q28. LJ medium is sterilized by:
- A) Autoclaving
- B) Inspissation ✅
- C) Steaming
- D) Filtration
Q29. Transport medium for Vibrio cholerae in stool:
- A) VR Medium
- B) Autoclaved sea water
- C) Cary Blair ✅
- D) Selenite F broth
Q30. Antibiotic sensitivity (AST) for Streptococcus pneumoniae is done on:
- A) Mueller–Hinton Agar
- B) Mueller–Hinton Agar with 5% sheep blood ✅
- C) Nutrient agar
- D) MacConkey agar
Q31. Turbidity of inoculum for antibiotic sensitivity testing (Kirby-Bauer) is set at:
- A) 2 McFarland
- B) 0.5 McFarland ✅
- C) 5 McFarland
- D) 1 McFarland
Q32. Drug of choice for MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus):
- A) Penicillin
- B) Vancomycin ✅
- C) Cephalosporins
- D) Carbapenems
Q33. Albert's staining is used for:
- A) Bacterial spores
- B) Corynebacterium (diphtheria) ✅
- C) Bacterial flagella
- D) Mycobacterium
Q34. Neisser's stain is specifically used to detect:
- A) Endospore
- B) Flagella
- C) Capsule
- D) Metachromatic granules (Corynebacterium) ✅
Q35. Which organism is indicator of anaerobiasis?
- A) Pseudomonas
- B) Staphylococcus aureus
- C) Clostridia ✅
- D) E. coli
Q36. Free DNA can be transferred between bacteria by:
- A) Transformation ✅
- B) Conjugation
- C) Transduction
- D) Transposons
Q37. Methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus is mediated by:
- A) mecA gene ✅
- B) blaZ gene
- C) vanA gene
- D) tetM gene
Q38. Most microbiology labs require which type of Biosafety Cabinet?
- A) Class II A ✅
- B) Class III
- C) Class I
- D) Class II B
🩸 SECTION 4: BLOOD BANKING & IMMUNOLOGY
Q39. ABO blood grouping is based on:
- A) Rh antigens
- B) ABO antigens on RBCs and antibodies in serum ✅
- C) HLA antigens
- D) Complement proteins
Q40. Universal blood donor is:
- A) AB positive
- B) A positive
- C) O negative ✅
- D) B negative
Q41. Universal blood recipient is:
- A) O negative
- B) AB positive ✅
- C) A positive
- D) B positive
Q42. WIDAL test is used for diagnosis of:
- A) Malaria
- B) Typhoid fever ✅
- C) Dengue
- D) Hepatitis B
Q43. ELISA detects antibodies based on principle of:
- A) Precipitation
- B) Agglutination
- C) Enzyme-linked antigen-antibody reaction ✅
- D) Complement fixation
Q44. The Rh factor was first discovered in:
- A) Chimpanzee
- B) Human volunteers
- C) Rhesus monkeys ✅
- D) Rabbits
Q45. Which hepatitis is vaccine-preventable blood-borne infection?
- A) Hepatitis C
- B) HIV
- C) Hepatitis B ✅
- D) Syphilis
🔬 SECTION 5: HISTOPATHOLOGY & CYTOLOGY
Q46. H&E stain — Hematoxylin stains:
- A) Cytoplasm pink
- B) Nucleus blue/purple ✅
- C) Collagen yellow
- D) RBCs blue
Q47. PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff) stain is used to demonstrate:
- A) Lipids
- B) Nucleic acids
- C) Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides ✅
- D) Amyloid
Q48. Congo red stain is used for:
- A) Fungi
- B) Bacteria
- C) Amyloid ✅
- D) Lipids
Q49. Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for:
- A) Gram-positive bacteria
- B) Acid-fast bacilli (M. tuberculosis) ✅
- C) Spirochetes
- D) Fungi
Q50. The fixative most commonly used in histopathology:
- A) Alcohol
- B) 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin ✅
- C) Acetone
- D) Glutaraldehyde
🛡️ SECTION 6: LABORATORY SAFETY & EQUIPMENT
Q51. Major hazard of using mercury thermometers in labs:
- A) Radioactivity
- B) Toxic vapor inhalation ✅
- C) Electrical hazard
- D) Corrosive spill
Q52. Biological indicator used to monitor autoclaving (sterilization):
- A) Bacillus anthracis
- B) Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus) ✅
- C) Clostridium tetani
- D) E. coli
Q53. Bowie-Dick test is performed for:
- A) Dry heat oven
- B) Pre-vacuum autoclave (to check air removal) ✅
- C) UV sterilization
- D) Chemical sterilization
Q54. Disinfectant used to kill ALL spores (sterilant):
- A) Chlorhexidine
- B) Triclosan
- C) 10% Hypochlorite ✅
- D) 5% Phenol
Q55. Reverse Osmosis water is used for:
- A) Hand hygiene
- B) Haemodialysis ✅
- C) Washing surgical instruments
- D) Autoclaving
Q56. Autoclave sterilizes at:
- A) 100°C, 10 min
- B) 121°C, 15 min, 15 psi ✅
- C) 160°C, 1 hour
- D) 180°C, 30 min
Q57. The three components of PCR include all EXCEPT:
- A) DNA Extraction
- B) Amplification
- C) Gel documentation
- D) Blotting ✅
Q58. Automated continuous monitoring system for blood culture:
- A) BacT/Alert 3D
- B) BACTEC
- C) VERSA TEK
- D) All of the above ✅
💡 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (20 MCQs - AIIMS CRE Pattern)
Q59. Full form of PCR in diagnostics:
→ Polymerase Chain Reaction
Q60. WHO stands for:
→ World Health Organization
Q61. NABL accreditation in India is given by:
→ National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
Q62. In computers, 1 GB = ?
→ 1024 MB
Q63. Shortcut key to save a document in MS Word:
→ Ctrl + S
📋 Quick Reference: Important Normal Values
| Parameter | Normal Range |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin (Male) | 13–17 g/dL |
| Hemoglobin (Female) | 12–15 g/dL |
| PCV/Hematocrit (Male) | 40–54% |
| Platelet count | 1.5–4 lakhs/mm³ |
| Fasting Blood Sugar | 70–100 mg/dL |
| Serum Creatinine | 0.6–1.2 mg/dL |
| BUN | 7–20 mg/dL |
| Serum Sodium | 135–145 mEq/L |
| Serum Potassium | 3.5–5 mEq/L |
| Serum Bilirubin (Total) | 0.2–1.2 mg/dL |
| Serum Albumin | 3.5–5 g/dL |
📌 Where to Find More PYQs
- AIIMS CRE Official Papers (2023, 2024): Available on Testbook and Adda247
- RRB Lab Technician Papers (2019, 2025): Available on Edulow
- GMC/ICMR Lab Tech Papers: PDF available at GMCS
- ESIC Lab Tech 2019 and NCL Lab Tech 2021: Also on Edulow
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