Question 1: A 35-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, and a mass descending PV with increases in size on coughing. She is posted for a Fothergill repair. Which of the following is false about this procedure? It is also known as Manchester operation It does not preserve the reproductive functions Recurrent abortions are a sequelae of this operation Amputation of cervix is done Question 2: A 62-year-old woman complains of constipation and difficulty having bowel movements. She states that she often needs to use her fingers to push her vagina backward to achieve a bowel movement. Her history is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient? Hysterectomy Anterior colporrhaphy Posterior colporrhaphy Resection and repair of enterocele Question 3: A 35-year-old woman is undergoing a hysterectomy for u v prolapse. The surgeon is attempt- ing to ensure that the patient does not have subsequent vaginal vault pro- lapse. One step that is taken is to use suture to fix the vaginal vault to the uterosacral ligaments. The patient is also noted to have a spacious cul-de-sac area. Which of the following techniques may be used to further decrease the likelihood of vaginal vault prolapse? Obliteration of the vaginal cavity Fixation of the vagina to the anterior abdominal wall Obliteration of the cul-de-sac Prophylactic pessary Question 4: A 23-year-old in the postnatal period after her first delivery developed a uterine prolapse . What would be the most appropriate management in her case? Ring pessary Le Forte's repair Abdominal sling operation Fothergill operation Question 5: A multiparous woman has a previous history of birth trauma with injury to the uterosacral and cardinal ligaments. According to DeLancey's classification, which level of uterine support is affected in this patient? Level 2 Level 3 Level 1 Level 4 Question 6: The risk of endometrial cancer is highest with the following histological pattern of endometrial hyperplasia: a. b. c. d. Simple hyperplasia without atypia Simple hyperplasia with atypia Complex hyperplasia without atypia Complex hyperplasia with atypia Question 7: The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is: a. b. c. d. 3% 8% 15% 28% Question 8: Percentage change of cystic glandular hyperplasia turning to malignancy: a. b. c. d. 0.1% 2% 1% 10% Question 9: Endometrial hyperplasia is seen in: a. b. c. d. Endodermal sinus tumor Dysgerminoma PCOD Ca cervix Question 10: What is the ideal treatment for a 55-years-female with Simple hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia? a. b. c. d. Simple hysterectomy Medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) Levonorgesterol (LNG) IUCD Question 11: What are the cardinal movements of labour? Engagement-descent-flexion-internal rotation-extension-external rotation-expulsion Engagement-flexion-descent-internal rotation-extension-expulsion Engagement-flexion-descent-external rotation-expulsion Engagement-extension-internal rotation-external rotation-expulsion Question 12: Which of the following is a prerequisite for internal rotation of the fetal head for a woman in labor? A) B) C) D) Straightening of fetal body Tone of transversus abdominis Well-extended head Tone of levator ani muscles Question 13: Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal rotation of the fetal head? Occiput turns towards the transverse axis Rotation is not essential when the fetus is unusually small Internal rotation is followed by external rotation Rotation is earlier in primigravida than in multigravida Question 14: Which of the following is not a part of a partograph? Fetal heart rate Maternal heart rate Maternal temperature Fetal temperature Question 15: Which of the following is false regarding the modified WHO partogram? A) B) C) Right side of alert line indicates immediate referral to First Referral Unit (FRU) Alert and action line are separated by a difference of 4 hours Each small square in partogram is equal to 1 hour Partograph recording should be started once the cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm Question 16: Which of the following are not risk factors for developing Gestational Diabetes? family history of diabetes gestational diabetes in previous pregnancy persistent glycosuria obesity in first degree relatives Question 17: A primigravida at 30 weeks of gestation is admitted with preterm labor contractions. She was diagnosed with GDM on screening. Which of the following tocolytic drugs should be avoided in her? Magnesium sulfate Nifedipine Terbutaline Indomethacin Question 18: A pregnant woman has GDM, her blood glucose levels are well controlled on Insulin. What will be the appropriate gestational age for her delivery? Options: 37 weeks 39 weeks 38 weeks 40 weeks Question 19: Which of the following complications is unlikely in a patient with gestational diabetes? Abortion Preeclampsia Respiratory distress syndrome Oligohydramnios Question 20: A baby was born at 37 weeks gestation with a birth weight of 4.9kg to mother of GDM. Which of the following complications is likely to be seen in this neonate? Polycythemia Hypercalcemia Hyperglycemia Hypermagnesemia Question 21: Pregnancy-induced hypertension typically occurs after how many weeks of gestation? 10 weeks 20 weeks 30 weeks 36 weeks Question 22: Which of the following is not a risk factor for PIH? Nulliparity Chronic hypertension Multiple gestation Smoking Question 23: Which of the following is the most specific sign of severe preeclampsia? Edema Proteinuria >5 g/day Hemolysis Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg Question 24: Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy? Methyldopa Labetalol Nifedipine ACE inhibitors Question 25: Which of the following is the most important pathophysiological factor in PIH? Increased plasma volume Increased cardiac output Defective trophoblastic invasion Hypovolemia Question 26: Which of the following is the most common cause of fetal growth restriction (FGR)? Chromosomal abnormalities Maternal hypertension Maternal diabetes Intrauterine infection Question 27: Fetal growth restriction is diagnosed when the estimated fetal weight is below which percentile for gestational age? 25th percentile 20th percentile 10th percentile 5th percentile Question 28: Which of the following Doppler findings is most suggestive of severe FGR? Increased middle cerebral artery resistance Reversed end-diastolic flow in umbilical artery Increased uterine artery diastolic flow Normal ductus venosus flow Question 29: Symmetrical FGR is most commonly associated with: Placental insufficiency Maternal anemia Genetic abnormalities Preeclampsia Question 30: Which of the following is the best initial method for diagnosing FGR? A. B. C. D. MRI of the fetus Amniocentesis Serial fundal height measurement Ultrasound for fetal biometry Question 31: The Rhesus blood group antigen complex is located on which chromosome? 16 14 4 1 Question 32: Antigens of which of the following blood group systems do not cause alloimmunization in a newborn/fetus? Kidd MNS Kell Lewis Question 33: A pregnant Rh-negative woman presents for her regular antenatal visit. Her Indirect Coombs test is negative. When would you give her prophylactic Anti-D? 28 weeks 24 weeks 28 weeks and then monthly thereafter 24 weeks and then monthly thereafter Question 34: Which of the following events in Rh-negative patients does not require Anti-D prophylaxis? Miscarriage Chorionic villi sampling Amniocentesis Postpartum hemorrhage Question 35: Chorionic villus sampling was performed on a G2P1 Rh-negative woman at 10 weeks of gestation. What is the dose of Anti-D immunoglobulin that should be administered? 50 microgram 100 microgram 150 microgram 300 microgram Question 36: Use of folic acid to prevent congenital malformation should be best initiated: During 1st trimester of pregnancy During 2nd trimester of pregnancy During 3rd trimester of pregnancy Before conception Question 37: A 22 year old G2P1 woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 24 weeks for a routine checkup. USG shows a normal for gestational age fetus in frank breech position, with no other abnormalities. What is the next best step in management 75g oral glucose stress test non stress tes external cephalic version lower segment caesarean section Question 38: Which of the following is not considered as a factor for a high risk pregnancy? obesity polyhydramnios anaemia previous caesarean section Question 39: Which of the following statements is not true regarding fetal souffle? a. b. c. d. it is a sharp whistling murmur synchronous with the fetal heart sounds it is due to rush of blood through the intervillous space it is heard in about 15% cases when present it is a diagnostic of pregnancy Question 40: An anxious pregnant woman came to you for a second opinion with the report of her biochemical screening tests. An increased level of human chorionic gonadotropin, as compared to normal pregnancy hcg levels, can be seen in all of the following conditions except: ectopic pregnancy hydatidiform mole trisomy 21 fetus multiple pregnancy Question 41: Initially, all fibroids are Intramural Submucosal Subserous Cervical Question 42: A 55-year-old lady comes with abnormal uterine bleeding. A hysterectomy was performed and the following specimen was retrieved. What is the diagnosis? Leiomyoma Endometrial carcinoma Endometrial polyp Adenomyosis Question 43: Which of the following best defines adenomyosis? Endometrial tissue located on the ovaries Endometrial tissue within the myometrium Endometrial tissue on the uterine serosa Endometrial tissue in the peritoneum Question 44: Which age group is adenomyosis most commonly seen in? Adolescents Women under 20 Women between 30–50 years Postmenopausal women Question 45: Infertility is defined as failure to conceive after how long of regular unprotected intercourse? 6 months 12 months 18 months 24 months Question 46: The most common cause of female infertility is: Uterine factor Cervical factor Tubal factor Ovulatory dysfunctio Question 47: All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma except: Family history of ovarian carcinoma Use of oral pills Use of Clomiphene BRCA - 1 positive individual Question 48: Which of the following strategy has been recommended to reduce the heredity risk for ovarian cancer in women with BRCA - 1 and BRCA - 2 mutations? Options: Use of oral contraceptive pills Screening with transvaginal ultrasound Screening with CA - 125 Prophylactic oophorectomy Question 49: Most common ovarian tumor in less than 20 years is: Options: Epithelial tumour Germ cell tumour Metastatic tumour Sexcord stromal tumour Question 50: According to WHO classification of ovarian tumours, Brenner tumor of ovary belongs to: Epithelial tumours Sex cord stromal tumours Germ cell tumours Metastatic tumours Answers from dutta