Here are 50 MCQs from the first 10 pages of your FMT Hyperrevision PDF:
FMT Hyperrevision - 50 MCQs (Pages 1-10)
MEDICAL LAW, ETHICS & NEGLIGENCE
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a defense against medical negligence?
- A) Therapeutic Misadventure
- B) Error of Judgment
- C) Res Judicata
- D) Dichotomy
Answer: D) Dichotomy
Dichotomy (giving/receiving commission for referrals) is an example of professional misconduct, not a defense.
Q2. A surgeon performs surgery and the patient suffers an injury due to a totally unexpected side effect of treatment. This is best classified as:
- A) Criminal Negligence
- B) Therapeutic Misadventure (Medical Maloccurrence)
- C) Error of Judgment
- D) Contributory Negligence
Answer: B) Therapeutic Misadventure (Medical Maloccurrence)
Q3. A civil case of medical negligence can be filed within how many years of occurrence?
- A) 1 year (Res Indicata)
- B) 2 years (Res Indicata)
- C) 3 years
- D) 5 years
Answer: B) 2 years (Res Indicata)
Q4. "Once a case is decided by court, it cannot be filed as a fresh case" - this doctrine is:
- A) Res Indicata
- B) Res Ipsa Loquitor
- C) Res Judicata
- D) Therapeutic Privilege
Answer: C) Res Judicata
Q5. A drunk surgeon causing major complications in surgery is classified as:
- A) Civil Negligence
- B) Contributory Negligence
- C) Criminal Negligence
- D) Error of Judgment
Answer: C) Criminal Negligence
Q6. Which type of consent is given during a routine general physical examination (palpation, percussion, auscultation)?
- A) Expressed oral consent
- B) Expressed written consent
- C) Implied consent
- D) Informed consent
Answer: C) Implied consent
Q7. Informed consent is:
- A) Minimal information given
- B) Complete information given to the patient
- C) Implied by patient's action
- D) Only required for minor procedures
Answer: B) Complete information given to the patient
Q8. A child below 12 years of age - who gives consent for medical procedures?
- A) The child can consent for all procedures
- B) Legal Guardian gives consent
- C) Court decides
- D) No consent needed
Answer: B) Legal Guardian gives consent
Q9. A child aged 13 years can independently consent for which of the following?
- A) Surgery
- B) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
- C) Routine general physical examination
- D) Blood transfusion
Answer: C) Routine general physical examination
Above 12 years: only 2 conditions - routine general physical exam and medical examination of sexual assault victim.
Q10. Which doctrine refers to "the hospital being liable when it is at fault"?
- A) Vicarious Liability
- B) Corporate Negligence
- C) Product's Liability
- D) Captain of the Ship Doctrine
Answer: B) Corporate Negligence
LEGAL PROCEDURES & BNS/BNSS
Q11. Indian Penal Code (IPC) has been replaced by:
- A) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
- B) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
- C) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
- D) Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)
Answer: B) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
Q12. Under BNS, which section deals with the act of a child below 7 years of age?
- A) Section 21
- B) Section 22
- C) Section 20
- D) Section 23
Answer: C) Section 20
Section 20: Act of child below 7 years - not punishable.
Q13. Under BNS, which section deals with voluntary intoxication - and is PUNISHABLE?
- A) Section 21
- B) Section 22
- C) Section 23
- D) Section 24
Answer: D) Section 24
Sections 20-23 are not punishable; Section 24 (voluntary intoxication) is punishable.
Q14. Under BNS, the minimum punishment for rape (Section 64) is:
- A) 5 years
- B) 7 years
- C) 10 years
- D) Life imprisonment
Answer: C) 10 years
Q15. BNS Section 103 deals with:
- A) Definition of Murder
- B) Punishment for Murder
- C) Grievous Hurt
- D) Death due to negligent act
Answer: B) Punishment for Murder
Section 101 = definition of murder; Section 103 = punishment for murder.
Q16. Death due to rash or negligent act causing medical negligence carries a maximum punishment of:
- A) 1 year
- B) 2 years
- C) 5 years
- D) 7 years
Answer: B) 2 years
BNS Section 106: Medical negligence - up to 2 years; Road Traffic Accident and other negligence - up to 5 years.
Q17. Inquest sections are under which law?
- A) BNS
- B) BSA
- C) BNSS
- D) IPC
Answer: C) BNSS
Inquest is a procedure, hence under BNSS (procedural law).
Q18. Which condition is required for a Magistrate Inquest (as opposed to Police Inquest)?
- A) Road Traffic Accident
- B) Dowry death
- C) Industrial accident
- D) Natural death
Answer: B) Dowry death
Magistrate Inquest conditions: Dowry death, Exhumation, and Custodial death.
Q19. Who decides whether a postmortem has to be done?
- A) The treating doctor
- B) The forensic pathologist
- C) The Investigating Officer
- D) The Magistrate
Answer: C) The Investigating Officer
Q20. Dying Declaration:
- A) Requires an oath
- B) Requires cross-examination
- C) Is followed in India
- D) Must be recorded only by a Magistrate
Answer: C) Is followed in India
Dying Declaration - no oath, no cross-examination, no accused present, recorded by anyone (preferably Magistrate).
WITNESSES & COURT HIERARCHY
Q21. An expert witness differs from a common witness in that an expert witness:
- A) Has first-hand knowledge of facts
- B) Provides technical expertise
- C) Hides the truth deliberately
- D) Is not allowed in court
Answer: B) Provides technical expertise
Q22. A Sessions Judge can award the death penalty, but it must be confirmed by:
- A) Supreme Court
- B) High Court
- C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
- D) District Judge
Answer: B) High Court
Q23. The maximum fine a 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate (lowest court) can impose is:
- A) Rs. 50,000
- B) Rs. 1,00,000
- C) Rs. 10,000
- D) Unlimited
Answer: C) Rs. 10,000
Q24. When two summons are received for the same date, which principle applies?
- A) Always attend the lower court
- B) Always attend the criminal case
- C) Always attend the higher court (higher court + civil case takes priority)
- D) Attend the one received first
Answer: C) Always attend the higher court
Q25. In which type of examination are leading questions routinely ALLOWED?
- A) Examination-in-Chief
- B) Re-examination
- C) Cross-examination
- D) Oath taking
Answer: C) Cross-examination
Q26. Medical evidence (postmortem report, injury report) is classified as:
- A) Documentary evidence
- B) Oral evidence
- C) Circumstantial evidence
- D) Hearsay evidence
Answer: B) Oral evidence
Medical evidence is always oral - the doctor must explain it subjectively in court.
STAIN ANALYSIS & FORENSIC SEROLOGY
Q27. The first step in stain analysis is:
- A) Individual identification
- B) Nature of stain (semen or blood)
- C) Species identification (human or animal)
- D) DNA fingerprinting
Answer: C) Species identification (human or animal)
Step 1: Species (Precipitin test); Step 2: Nature; Step 3: Individual identification.
Q28. The Precipitin test is used for:
- A) Confirmatory test for blood
- B) Species identification
- C) Individual identification
- D) Confirmatory test for semen
Answer: B) Species identification
Q29. UV Fluorescence of seminal stains is due to which component of semen?
- A) Spermine (from prostate)
- B) Fructose (from seminal vesicles)
- C) Choline (from seminal vesicles)
- D) Acid phosphatase
Answer: C) Choline (from seminal vesicles)
Q30. The Florence test for semen uses which reagent and produces what crystals?
- A) Picric acid - needle-shaped yellow crystals
- B) Iodine - rhombic dark brown crystals of choline iodide
- C) Sodium chloride + acetic acid - dark brownish crystals
- D) Sodium hydroxide + pyridine - feathery pink crystals
Answer: B) Iodine - rhombic dark brown crystals of choline iodide
Q31. The Barberio test produces which type of crystals?
- A) Rhombic dark brown crystals
- B) Feathery pink crystals
- C) Needle-shaped yellow crystals of spermine picrate
- D) Rhombic hematin chloride crystals
Answer: C) Needle-shaped yellow crystals of spermine picrate
Q32. Which is the BEST confirmatory test for semen?
- A) Acid Phosphatase Test
- B) Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) Test
- C) Sperm detection (at least one complete sperm)
- D) Florence Test
Answer: C) Sperm detection (at least one complete sperm)
Head alone is NOT sufficient; at least one complete sperm is required.
Q33. Creatinine Phosphokinase Test for semen is useless in which condition?
- A) Females
- B) Azoospermia (aspermics)
- C) Children
- D) Decomposed bodies
Answer: B) Azoospermia (aspermics)
Creatinine Phosphokinase is a component of the sperm itself - useless if no sperm.
Q34. Hydrogen Peroxide-based tests for blood are:
- A) Confirmatory tests
- B) Presumptive (macrochemical) tests
- C) Species-specific tests
- D) Individual identification tests
Answer: B) Presumptive (macrochemical) tests
Mnemonic: Hydrogen Peroxide Ka BLOG = Kastle-Meyer, Benzidine, Leucomalachite Green, OTolidine, Guaiacum.
Q35. The Teichmann (Hemin) test uses which reagent?
- A) Picric acid
- B) Sodium chloride + Acetic acid
- C) Iodine
- D) Sodium hydroxide + Pyridine + Glucose
Answer: B) Sodium chloride + Acetic acid
Produces rhombic dark brownish crystals of Hematin Chloride - similar in appearance to Florence test crystals.
Q36. Which test for blood is NOT reliable in old or dry stains?
- A) Luminol Spray Test
- B) Teichmann Test
- C) Spectroscopy
- D) Blood Cell Detection
Answer: B) Teichmann Test
Both Acid Phosphatase Test (semen) and Teichmann Test (blood) are confirmatory but not reliable in old/dry stains.
AUTOPSY & POSTMORTEM CHANGES
Q37. What is the preferred skin incision in asphyxia deaths?
- A) Standard Y incision
- B) Inverted Y incision
- C) Modified Y incision
- D) Midline incision
Answer: C) Modified Y incision
Q38. In infants, the sequence of cavity opening during autopsy is:
- A) Cranium → Chest → Abdomen
- B) Cranium → Abdomen → Chest
- C) Chest → Abdomen → Cranium
- D) Abdomen → Chest → Cranium
Answer: B) Cranium → Abdomen → Chest
In infants, abdomen is opened before chest to assess level of diaphragm (to determine if the child took respiration).
Q39. Which evisceration method removes all organs together (en masse) and is best in infants?
- A) Virchow's method
- B) Ghon's method
- C) Letulle's method
- D) Rokitansky's method
Answer: C) Letulle's method
Q40. In extradural hemorrhage, which blood vessel is typically ruptured?
- A) Bridging meningeal veins
- B) Berry aneurysm
- C) Middle meningeal artery
- D) Anterior cerebral artery
Answer: C) Middle meningeal artery
Extradural hemorrhage is always associated with skull fracture and is limited by sutures.
Q41. The most common intracranial hemorrhage after head injury is:
- A) Extradural hemorrhage
- B) Subdural hemorrhage
- C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- D) Intracerebral hemorrhage
Answer: B) Subdural hemorrhage
Q42. Antemortem clot is characterized by:
- A) Red Currant Jelly appearance
- B) Chicken Fat appearance
- C) Lines of Zahn (alternate layers of red and pale)
- D) Uniform dark red color
Answer: C) Lines of Zahn (alternate layers of red and pale)
Lines of Zahn are seen on microscope; Postmortem clot (Red Currant Jelly or Chicken Fat) is seen on gross examination.
Q43. Tache Noire is:
- A) Fragmentation of blood in retinal vessels
- B) Drying of conjunctiva with deposition of dust and bacteria
- C) A postmortem staining pattern
- D) Greenish discolouration of the right iliac fossa
Answer: B) Drying of conjunctiva with deposition of dust and bacteria
Occurs 3-4 hours after death.
Q44. The curve of cooling of the body after death is best described as:
- A) Linear
- B) Exponential
- C) Sigmoid (Inverted S)
- D) Logarithmic
Answer: C) Sigmoid (Inverted S)
Q45. Rigor mortis is fully developed at:
- A) 2-12 hours
- B) 12-24 hours
- C) 24-36 hours
- D) More than 36 hours
Answer: B) 12-24 hours
Q46. The FIRST external part to show rigor mortis (Nysten's Rule) is:
- A) Neck muscles
- B) Jaw
- C) Upper eyelids
- D) Heart
Answer: C) Upper eyelids
First internal part = Heart; First external part = Upper eyelids.
Q47. Cadaveric Spasm involves which muscles?
- A) Only involuntary muscles
- B) Both voluntary and involuntary muscles
- C) Only voluntary muscles (only hands)
- D) Only cardiac muscle
Answer: C) Only voluntary muscles (only hands)
Q48. The main bacteria responsible for putrefaction is:
- A) Clostridium perfringens
- B) Clostridium Welchii
- C) Staphylococcus aureus
- D) E. coli
Answer: B) Clostridium Welchii
Main enzyme: Lecithinase; Pigment for greenish discolouration: Sulfmethemoglobin.
Q49. Adipocere formation requires which conditions?
- A) Hot and dry environment
- B) Warm/hot and moist environment
- C) Cold and dry environment
- D) Any environment
Answer: B) Warm/hot and moist environment
Mummification requires hot and DRY; Adipocere requires warm/hot and MOIST.
IDENTIFICATION & DENTITION
Q50. The minimum survival time to detect Myocardial Infarction changes by Triphenyl Tetrazolium Chloride (TTC) test is:
- A) 1 hour
- B) 3 hours
- C) 6 hours
- D) 12 hours
Answer: B) 3 hours
Mnemonic: 3, 6, 12 = TTC Test, Histopathology, Naked Eye.
Summary Table
| Q# | Topic | Answer |
|---|
| 1 | Defenses against negligence | D |
| 2 | Therapeutic Misadventure | B |
| 3 | Res Indicata | B |
| 4 | Res Judicata | C |
| 5 | Criminal Negligence | C |
| 6 | Implied Consent | C |
| 7 | Informed Consent | B |
| 8 | Consent below 12 yrs | B |
| 9 | Consent age 13 | C |
| 10 | Corporate Negligence | B |
| 11 | IPC replaced by | B |
| 12 | BNS Section 20 | C |
| 13 | Voluntary intoxication | D |
| 14 | Minimum rape punishment | C |
| 15 | BNS Section 103 | B |
| 16 | Medical negligence punishment | B |
| 17 | Inquest under which law | C |
| 18 | Magistrate Inquest condition | B |
| 19 | Postmortem decision | C |
| 20 | Dying Declaration | C |
| 21 | Expert witness | B |
| 22 | Death penalty confirmation | B |
| 23 | 2nd Class Magistrate fine | C |
| 24 | Two summons same date | C |
| 25 | Leading questions allowed | C |
| 26 | Medical evidence classification | B |
| 27 | First step stain analysis | C |
| 28 | Precipitin test | B |
| 29 | UV fluorescence - component | C |
| 30 | Florence test | B |
| 31 | Barberio test crystals | C |
| 32 | Best confirmatory semen test | C |
| 33 | CPK test useless in | B |
| 34 | H2O2-based tests | B |
| 35 | Teichmann test reagent | B |
| 36 | Not reliable in old/dry stains | B |
| 37 | Skin incision in asphyxia | C |
| 38 | Infant autopsy sequence | B |
| 39 | En masse evisceration | C |
| 40 | Extradural hemorrhage vessel | C |
| 41 | Most common post-head injury bleed | B |
| 42 | Antemortem clot | C |
| 43 | Tache Noire | B |
| 44 | Cooling curve | C |
| 45 | Fully developed rigor mortis | B |
| 46 | First external rigor mortis | C |
| 47 | Cadaveric Spasm muscles | C |
| 48 | Putrefaction main bacteria | B |
| 49 | Adipocere conditions | B |
| 50 | TTC test minimum time | B |
All 50 MCQs are directly based on your FMT Hyperrevision notes (pages 1-10), covering Medical Law & Ethics, BNS/BNSS sections, Consent, Inquest, Stain Analysis, Autopsy Techniques, Postmortem Changes, and Identification. Let me know if you'd like MCQs from additional pages, a Word/PDF file of these questions, or difficulty adjustments!