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CBC Interpretation - 30 MCQs
SECTION 1: Red Cell Parameters & Anemia Classification (Q1-Q10)
Q1. A 34-year-old woman presents with fatigue. CBC shows: Hb 9.2 g/dL, MCV 68 fL, MCH 22 pg, MCHC 28 g/dL, RDW 18%, serum ferritin 4 ng/mL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Anemia of chronic disease
- B) Iron deficiency anemia
- C) Beta-thalassemia trait
- D) Sideroblastic anemia
Answer: B - Iron deficiency anemia
Explanation: Low MCV (microcytic), low MCH, low MCHC, and markedly elevated RDW (>15%) together with low ferritin confirm iron deficiency. The high RDW reflects anisocytosis (mixed cell sizes) typical of IDA. Anemia of chronic disease usually has normal or mildly elevated RDW.
Q2. A 28-year-old man of Mediterranean descent has: Hb 11.8 g/dL, MCV 64 fL, RBC 6.1 × 10¹²/L, RDW 13.5%, serum ferritin 85 ng/mL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Iron deficiency anemia
- B) Beta-thalassemia trait
- C) Alpha-thalassemia trait (2-gene deletion)
- D) Hemoglobin E trait
Answer: B - Beta-thalassemia trait
Explanation: The key distinguishing feature here is a HIGH RBC count with low MCV (microcytosis) but NORMAL RDW (uniform small cells) and normal ferritin. Iron deficiency would show elevated RDW and low ferritin. Beta-thalassemia trait classically shows elevated RBC, very low MCV, and normal RDW. The Mentzer Index (MCV/RBC) = 64/6.1 = 10.5 (<13 supports thalassemia; >13 supports IDA).
Q3. Which formula correctly relates the CBC parameters?
- A) MCHC = (Hb / MCV) × 100
- B) MCHC = (Hb / Hct) × 100
- C) MCH = Hb × RBC
- D) Hct = Hb × 10
Answer: B - MCHC = (Hb / Hct) × 100
Explanation: From Henry's Clinical Diagnosis: Hct = MCV × RBC; MCH = Hb/RBC; MCHC = (Hb/Hct) × 100. MCHC reflects hemoglobin concentration within the RBC and normally ranges 33-36 g/dL.
Q4. A patient's CBC shows: Hb 8.1 g/dL, MCV 110 fL, WBC 3.8 × 10⁹/L, platelets 110 × 10⁹/L. Peripheral smear shows hypersegmented neutrophils. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A) Serum ferritin and TIBC
- B) Serum B12 and folate levels
- C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
- D) Bone marrow biopsy
Answer: B - Serum B12 and folate levels
Explanation: Macrocytic anemia (MCV >100 fL) with pancytopenia and hypersegmented neutrophils (≥5 lobes in >5% of neutrophils) is the hallmark of megaloblastic anemia caused by B12 or folate deficiency. Hypersegmented neutrophils may appear before anemia is evident.
Q5. Reticulocyte Production Index (RPI) is calculated as: RPI = (reticulocyte % × patient Hct / normal Hct) / maturation factor. An RPI of 0.8 in an anemic patient indicates:
- A) Adequate compensatory erythropoiesis
- B) Hypoproliferative (aregenerative) anemia
- C) Hemolytic anemia
- D) Active hemorrhage with bone marrow response
Answer: B - Hypoproliferative (aregenerative) anemia
Explanation: RPI <2 indicates inadequate bone marrow response (hypoproliferative). RPI >3 suggests hyperproliferative states (hemolysis, acute blood loss with marrow response). An RPI of 0.8 means the marrow is NOT compensating adequately, pointing to a production defect (iron deficiency, B12/folate deficiency, anemia of chronic disease, aplastic anemia).
Q6. A 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has: Hb 10.1 g/dL, MCV 80 fL, serum iron 45 mcg/dL (low), TIBC 180 mcg/dL (low), ferritin 220 ng/mL (high), RDW 13%. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Iron deficiency anemia
- B) Anemia of chronic disease
- C) Mixed iron deficiency and ACD
- D) Sideroblastic anemia
Answer: B - Anemia of chronic disease
Explanation: The classic pattern of ACD is: low serum iron + LOW TIBC (unlike IDA where TIBC is elevated) + HIGH ferritin + normal/slightly low MCV + NORMAL RDW. In IDA: ferritin is low, TIBC is high. Ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and is elevated in inflammatory states.
Q7. A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has: Hb 9.0 g/dL, MCV 84 fL, reticulocyte count 0.4%, normal B12, folate, and iron studies. Peripheral smear shows normochromic, normocytic RBCs. What is the primary mechanism?
- A) Shortened RBC lifespan
- B) Decreased erythropoietin production
- C) Iron sequestration by hepcidin
- D) Folate depletion from dialysis
Answer: B - Decreased erythropoietin production
Explanation: Chronic renal failure causes normocytic, normochromic anemia primarily due to reduced erythropoietin synthesis by specialized peritubular cells in the kidney. Unlike other anemias, the compensatory erythropoietic response is blunted because the stimulus (EPO) is absent. The low reticulocyte count confirms aregenerative anemia.
Q8. The RDW (Red Cell Distribution Width) measures:
- A) Average red cell size
- B) Degree of anisocytosis (variation in RBC size)
- C) Average hemoglobin content per cell
- D) Ratio of packed cells to whole blood
Answer: B - Degree of anisocytosis (variation in RBC size)
Explanation: RDW is the coefficient of variation of red cell volumes. Normal RDW is 11.5-14.5%. Elevated RDW indicates anisocytosis. It is particularly useful in differentiating IDA (high RDW) from thalassemia trait (normal RDW) in microcytic anemias.
Q9. Which CBC finding is the EARLIEST indicator of iron deficiency before anemia develops?
- A) Decreased Hb
- B) Decreased MCV
- C) Elevated RDW
- D) Decreased MCHC
Answer: C - Elevated RDW
Explanation: In iron deficiency, the sequence is: (1) Depleted iron stores (low ferritin) → (2) Elevated RDW (anisocytosis) → (3) Decreased MCV → (4) Decreased MCH/MCHC → (5) Overt anemia (low Hb). The RDW rises first because early iron-deficient RBCs are smaller than older normal-sized cells, creating size variability before the mean MCV falls.
Q10. A neonate at 28 days of life has Hb 9.5 g/dL, MCV 105 fL, normal B12/folate. What is the most likely cause?
- A) Megaloblastic anemia
- B) Diamond-Blackfan anemia
- C) Physiologic anemia of infancy
- D) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Answer: C - Physiologic anemia of infancy
Explanation: Physiologic anemia of infancy peaks at 8-12 weeks (2-3 months) due to: (1) shift from fetal to adult Hb, (2) shortened fetal RBC lifespan, (3) rapid growth diluting RBC mass, (4) relative EPO suppression post-birth. Neonates also normally have macrocytic RBCs (MCV 95-115 fL). This is a self-limited process.
SECTION 2: White Cell Parameters (Q11-Q18)
Q11. A 25-year-old presents with fever, pharyngitis, and splenomegaly. CBC shows WBC 14 × 10⁹/L with 60% lymphocytes, many atypical. Hb and platelets are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
- B) Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)
- C) CMV mononucleosis
- D) Pertussis
Answer: B - Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)
Explanation: The combination of fever, pharyngitis, splenomegaly, lymphocytosis with atypical (reactive) lymphocytes is classic for EBV infectious mononucleosis. Atypical lymphocytes are actually reactive T-cells responding to EBV-infected B cells. CMV can mimic this but less commonly causes pharyngitis. ALL would show blasts, not atypical lymphocytes.
Q12. A 7-year-old child presents with 3 weeks of cough. CBC shows WBC 35 × 10⁹/L with 85% small mature lymphocytes. No blasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) CLL
- B) ALL
- C) Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)
- D) EBV infection
Answer: C - Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)
Explanation: Pertussis characteristically produces a marked absolute lymphocytosis (WBC 20-50 × 10⁹/L) with small, mature lymphocytes - not atypical or blast cells. This is caused by pertussis toxin, which inhibits lymphocyte recirculation from blood to lymph nodes. CLL is rare in children, and ALL would show blasts/immature cells.
Q13. Which CBC finding in a patient with suspected bacterial sepsis has the STRONGEST prognostic significance?
- A) WBC >20 × 10⁹/L
- B) Left shift (>10% band neutrophils)
- C) Toxic granulation in neutrophils on smear
- D) Leukopenia (<4 × 10⁹/L)
Answer: D - Leukopenia (<4 × 10⁹/L)
Explanation: Paradoxical leukopenia in bacterial sepsis indicates bone marrow exhaustion or overwhelming infection consuming neutrophils faster than they can be produced. It carries a significantly worse prognosis than leukocytosis. Left shift (bands, metamyelocytes in blood) and toxic granulation indicate severe infection, but leukopenia predicts mortality more strongly.
Q14. A patient on long-term corticosteroids has WBC 14 × 10⁹/L with 85% neutrophils, 8% lymphocytes, 1% eosinophils. What is the mechanism of steroid-induced neutrophilia?
- A) Increased neutrophil production in bone marrow
- B) Demargination of neutrophils from vessel walls + decreased apoptosis
- C) Decreased neutrophil migration to tissues
- D) Both B and C
Answer: D - Both B and C
Explanation: Corticosteroids cause neutrophilia by: (1) Demargination - releasing neutrophils from the marginated pool along vessel walls into circulating blood; (2) Decreased neutrophil apoptosis - prolonging their lifespan; (3) Impaired egress - reducing migration from blood to tissues. Steroids also cause lymphocytopenia (lymphocyte redistribution to lymph nodes), eosinopenia (enhanced eosinophil apoptosis), and monocytopenia.
Q15. A 45-year-old woman has WBC 2.8 × 10⁹/L with absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 900/mcL. She is started on prophylactic antibiotics. At what ANC threshold is the risk of life-threatening infection highest?
- A) ANC <1500/mcL
- B) ANC <1000/mcL
- C) ANC <500/mcL
- D) ANC <200/mcL
Answer: C - ANC <500/mcL
Explanation: Risk stratification: ANC 1000-1500 = mild neutropenia (minor risk); ANC 500-1000 = moderate risk; ANC <500 = severe neutropenia with high infection risk; ANC <100 = profound neutropenia (near-zero protection). The classic threshold for life-threatening infection risk and prophylactic antibiotic initiation is ANC <500/mcL. ANC = WBC × % (neutrophils + bands).
Q16. A 38-year-old woman with chronic itch and asthma has CBC showing WBC 9 × 10⁹/L with 18% eosinophils (absolute eosinophil count 1620/mcL). Which condition should be ruled out FIRST?
- A) Allergic rhinitis
- B) Tissue-invasive helminthic infection
- C) Drug reaction
- D) Atopic dermatitis
Answer: B - Tissue-invasive helminthic infection
Explanation: Absolute eosinophil count >1500/mcL (hypereosinophilia) warrants investigation for tissue-invasive helminths (Strongyloides, Toxocara, trichinella) before considering other causes. Superficial parasites (pinworm) and protozoa do NOT cause significant eosinophilia - only tissue-invasive helminths do. Simple allergic conditions typically cause mild eosinophilia (<1000/mcL).
Q17. A patient's CBC differential shows: neutrophils 35%, lymphocytes 55%, monocytes 8%, eosinophils 2%. WBC is 4.2 × 10⁹/L. The most likely clinical context is:
- A) Acute bacterial pneumonia
- B) Systemic lupus erythematosus with lymphopenia
- C) Viral infection (e.g., influenza)
- D) Parasitic infection
Answer: C - Viral infection
Explanation: Relative and absolute lymphocytosis with decreased neutrophils in the context of normal total WBC is characteristic of viral infections. Bacteria typically cause neutrophilia. Absolute lymphocyte count here = 4.2 × 0.55 = 2.31 × 10⁹/L (mild lymphocytosis). SLE typically causes lymphopenia, not lymphocytosis.
Q18. A peripheral blood smear shows "drumstick" nuclear appendages on neutrophils in approximately 1 in 36 cells. This finding indicates:
- A) Lead poisoning
- B) Female sex (Barr body in neutrophils)
- C) Pelger-Huet anomaly
- D) Hypersegmentation
Answer: B - Female sex (Barr body in neutrophils)
Explanation: Drumstick appendages (small, round nuclear projections connected by thin chromatin strand) are neutrophil Barr bodies representing the inactive X chromosome. They are found in approximately 1/36 neutrophils in normal females and are absent in males. This has been used historically for sex determination in forensics. Not to be confused with hypersegmentation or Pelger-Huet anomaly.
SECTION 3: Platelet Parameters (Q19-Q23)
Q19. A 28-year-old pregnant woman (32 weeks) has an incidental CBC finding: platelets 88 × 10⁹/L. She is asymptomatic with no petechiae. Her BP is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
- B) Gestational thrombocytopenia
- C) HELLP syndrome
- D) TTP
Answer: B - Gestational thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Gestational thrombocytopenia accounts for ~75% of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. It is mild (platelets rarely <70 × 10⁹/L), asymptomatic, occurs in the 3rd trimester, and resolves after delivery. HELLP would have elevated LFTs, hypertension, and RBC fragmentation. ITP usually causes platelets <50 × 10⁹/L with bleeding. TTP presents with MAHA, fever, neurologic signs.
Q20. A 60-year-old man post-hip replacement on heparin day 8 has platelets drop from 210 × 10⁹/L to 65 × 10⁹/L. He develops a new DVT. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Post-transfusion purpura
- B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type II (HIT)
- C) Drug-induced ITP
- D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Answer: B - Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type II (HIT)
Explanation: HIT type II presents on days 5-14 of heparin therapy with >50% platelet drop (not necessarily below 100) AND THROMBOSIS (venous or arterial) - the "4Ts" scoring system. The paradox is thrombocytopenia with thrombosis due to anti-PF4/heparin IgG antibodies activating platelets. Heparin must be stopped immediately and replaced with a non-heparin anticoagulant (argatroban, bivalirudin).
Q21. A patient has platelets of 650 × 10⁹/L. Iron studies show iron deficiency. After iron replacement, platelets normalize to 290 × 10⁹/L. What is the mechanism of reactive thrombocytosis in iron deficiency?
- A) Decreased TPO clearance
- B) Thrombopoietin shares homology with EPO and both are upregulated
- C) Cytokines (IL-6, IL-1) from chronic inflammation stimulate megakaryopoiesis
- D) Compensatory splenomegaly releases platelet stores
Answer: C - Cytokines (IL-6, IL-1) from chronic inflammation stimulate megakaryopoiesis
Explanation: Reactive (secondary) thrombocytosis is driven by cytokine stimulation (IL-6 is the most potent driver of TPO-independent megakaryopoiesis). It occurs in: iron deficiency, infection/inflammation, post-splenectomy, tissue injury, malignancy. Platelet counts in reactive thrombocytosis rarely cause thrombosis (unlike essential thrombocythemia). Treating the underlying cause resolves it.
Q22. Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) is elevated. Which of the following is the most likely associated condition?
- A) Aplastic anemia
- B) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
- C) Myelosuppressive chemotherapy
- D) Hypersplenism
Answer: B - Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation: Elevated MPV indicates large, young platelets - a sign of increased platelet turnover and active thrombopoiesis. In ITP, antibody-mediated platelet destruction stimulates compensatory megakaryocyte hyperplasia producing large reticulated platelets. Low MPV = decreased platelet production (aplastic anemia, chemotherapy, hypersplenism). High MPV also seen in: Bernard-Soulier syndrome, May-Hegglin anomaly.
Q23. A patient undergoing chemotherapy has: Hb 7.2 g/dL, WBC 1.1 × 10⁹/L, ANC 200/mcL, platelets 12 × 10⁹/L. The platelet transfusion threshold for a NON-bleeding, non-febrile patient is:
- A) <50 × 10⁹/L
- B) <20 × 10⁹/L
- C) <10 × 10⁹/L
- D) <5 × 10⁹/L
Answer: C - <10 × 10⁹/L
Explanation: Current guidelines recommend prophylactic platelet transfusion at <10 × 10⁹/L in stable, non-bleeding chemotherapy patients. Thresholds are raised to <20 × 10⁹/L if there is fever, active bleeding, or rapid platelet fall; and to <50 × 10⁹/L for procedures/surgery. For CNS surgery, maintain >100 × 10⁹/L.
SECTION 4: Integrated CBC Interpretation & Clinical Scenarios (Q24-30)
Q24. A 72-year-old man has: WBC 85 × 10⁹/L with 94% small mature lymphocytes, Hb 9.8 g/dL, platelets 95 × 10⁹/L. Peripheral smear shows "smudge cells." What is the diagnosis?
- A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
- B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
- C) Lymphoma in leukemic phase
- D) Reactive lymphocytosis
Answer: B - Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Explanation: CLL is characterized by: (1) absolute lymphocytosis >5 × 10⁹/L of small, mature-appearing B lymphocytes; (2) smudge/basket cells on smear (fragile CLL cells rupture during slide preparation); (3) anemia and thrombocytopenia from marrow infiltration. Peak age >60 years. CLL diagnosis requires >5000/mcL clonal B lymphocytes by flow cytometry. ALL would show blasts.
Q25. A CBC shows: WBC 3.2 × 10⁹/L, Hb 8.9 g/dL (MCV 94 fL), platelets 88 × 10⁹/L. LDH is elevated at 850 U/L. Peripheral smear shows: schistocytes (fragmented RBCs). The APTT and PT are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
- B) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
- C) Megaloblastic anemia
- D) Evans syndrome
Answer: B - Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Explanation: TTP = pentad of: microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA: schistocytes + elevated LDH + low Hb) + thrombocytopenia + fever + neurological symptoms + renal dysfunction. The KEY distinguishing feature from DIC: PT and APTT are NORMAL in TTP (coagulation factors are not consumed). In DIC, PT/APTT are prolonged. Schistocytes result from RBCs sheared by fibrin strands in small vessels.
Q26. A 45-year-old woman post-appendectomy develops fever on day 3. CBC shows: WBC 18 × 10⁹/L, Hb 11 g/dL, platelets 48 × 10⁹/L (was 280 × 10⁹/L pre-op), fibrinogen 90 mg/dL (low), D-dimer markedly elevated, PT 22 sec (high), APTT 58 sec (high). Smear shows schistocytes. What is the diagnosis?
- A) TTP
- B) HIT
- C) DIC
- D) Sepsis-associated thrombocytopenia
Answer: C - Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
Explanation: DIC is confirmed by: thrombocytopenia + prolonged PT/APTT + low fibrinogen (consumed) + elevated D-dimer (fibrin degradation products) + schistocytes. The trigger here is post-surgical infection/sepsis. Unlike TTP, DIC has coagulopathy (abnormal PT/APTT). Management targets the underlying cause; supportive therapy includes FFP (for coagulopathy), cryoprecipitate (for fibrinogen <100), and platelet transfusion if <10-20 × 10⁹/L with bleeding.
Q27. A 55-year-old smoker has: RBC 6.8 × 10¹²/L, Hb 19.5 g/dL, Hct 58%, WBC 11 × 10⁹/L, platelets 450 × 10⁹/L, MCV 78 fL. SpO₂ is 91%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Polycythemia vera
- B) Secondary polycythemia from hypoxia
- C) Relative polycythemia (Gaisbock syndrome)
- D) Essential thrombocythemia with erythrocytosis
Answer: B - Secondary polycythemia from hypoxia
Explanation: The low SpO₂ (91%) in a smoker (COPD/emphysema) points to hypoxia-driven erythropoiesis via elevated EPO. Secondary polycythemia: Hct elevated, normal or elevated EPO, NO JAK2 mutation. Polycythemia vera: Hct elevated, LOW EPO, JAK2 V617F mutation positive, often with leukocytosis and thrombocytosis. Microcytic RBCs (MCV 78) suggest concurrent iron deficiency from expanded RBC mass.
Q28. Which combination of findings is characteristic of hemolytic anemia on CBC and peripheral smear?
- A) Low Hb, low reticulocytes, elevated LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin
- B) Low Hb, elevated reticulocytes, elevated LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin, low haptoglobin
- C) Low Hb, elevated reticulocytes, normal LDH, elevated direct bilirubin
- D) Low Hb, low reticulocytes, low LDH, low bilirubin
Answer: B - Low Hb, elevated reticulocytes, elevated LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin, low haptoglobin
Explanation: Hemolysis markers: (1) Elevated reticulocytes (compensatory erythropoiesis); (2) Elevated LDH (released from lysed RBCs); (3) Elevated INDIRECT (unconjugated) bilirubin (from heme catabolism); (4) LOW haptoglobin (bound and cleared with free Hb); (5) Elevated plasma free Hb (in intravascular hemolysis). Direct bilirubin elevation suggests obstructive/hepatic cause.
Q29. A post-splenectomy patient's CBC shows: Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and acanthocytes on smear, with platelet count of 650 × 10⁹/L. WBC shows persistent mild neutrophilia. What additional smear finding SPECIFICALLY indicates asplenia?
- A) Target cells
- B) Howell-Jolly bodies
- C) Siderocytes (Pappenheimer bodies)
- D) Acanthocytes
Answer: B - Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation: Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear DNA remnants (chromatin fragments) within RBCs that are normally removed by the spleen's "pitting" function. Their presence in circulation is the most specific smear indicator of asplenia (functional or anatomic). The intact spleen also removes: nucleated RBCs, Heinz bodies, Pappenheimer bodies. Post-splenectomy patients are at lifelong risk for encapsulated organism infections (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae).
Q30. A 33-year-old woman with SLE has: Hb 8.0 g/dL, MCV 88 fL, reticulocyte count 8%, direct Coombs test (DAT) POSITIVE. WBC 3.1 × 10⁹/L, platelets 55 × 10⁹/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Drug-induced hemolytic anemia
- B) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) with Evans syndrome
- C) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
- D) TTP
Answer: B - Warm AIHA / Evans syndrome
Explanation: Evans syndrome = autoimmune hemolytic anemia + immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) occurring simultaneously. In SLE, anti-RBC and anti-platelet autoantibodies cause both. The positive DAT (direct Coombs) confirms antibody-coated RBCs - diagnostic of AIHA. MAHA (TTP/DIC) would be DAT-NEGATIVE (mechanical hemolysis, not antibody-mediated). The combination of warm AIHA + ITP in a known SLE patient = Evans syndrome.
Quick Reference: CBC Normal Ranges
| Parameter | Male | Female |
|---|
| Hemoglobin | 13.5-17.5 g/dL | 12.0-16.0 g/dL |
| Hematocrit | 41-53% | 36-46% |
| RBC | 4.5-5.9 × 10¹²/L | 4.0-5.2 × 10¹²/L |
| MCV | 80-100 fL | 80-100 fL |
| MCH | 27-33 pg | 27-33 pg |
| MCHC | 33-36 g/dL | 33-36 g/dL |
| RDW | 11.5-14.5% | 11.5-14.5% |
| WBC | 4-11 × 10⁹/L | 4-11 × 10⁹/L |
| Neutrophils | 1.8-7.7 × 10⁹/L | 1.8-7.7 × 10⁹/L |
| Platelets | 150-400 × 10⁹/L | 150-400 × 10⁹/L |
Sources: Henry's Clinical Diagnosis and Management by Laboratory Methods; Robbins & Kumar Basic Pathology; Textbook of Family Medicine 9e; Symptom to Diagnosis: An Evidence Based Guide 4e