You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 78-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressively worsening fatigue and headache for 6 months and occasional abdominal pain. He has not had any changes in his weight. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic shoulder pain. Current daily medications include hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, and ibuprofen. He does not drink alcohol and does not smoke. His diet has mostly consisted of potatoes and lean meats since his wife passed away 1 year ago. His pulse is 92/min and blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. Examination shows conjunctival and mucosal pallor. Abdominal and rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Neurological exam shows mild postural tremor. Peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells with increased zones of central pallor and anisocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s symptoms? Options: A) Folic acid deficiency B) Intravascular hemolysis C) Impaired erythropoietin production D) Iron deficiency Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.