You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 62-year-old man presents with bright red blood in his stool which occurred 2 times this week. He denies fever, weight loss, pain, pruritus or urinary symptoms. Past medical history is significant for gastroesophageal reflux disease, and recent appendicitis, status post laparoscopic appendectomy complicated by delirium tremens. His vitals are a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, pulse of 78/min, and respiratory rate of 12/min. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with shifting dullness on percussion. In addition, multiple purple spider web-like lesions are present on the chest and arms, which blanch when pressure is applied. Fecal occult blood test is negative. On anoscopy, a non-tender, dilated vascular protrusion is noted superior to the pectinate line. Which of the following is most likely true about this patient’s current symptoms? Options: A) This patient has peptic ulcer disease. B) The vascular protrusion drains into the superior rectal vein. C) The vascular protrusion drains into the inferior rectal vein. D) Fecal leukocytes and a stool culture are required for diagnosis. Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.