You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 50-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor following an inguinal hernia repair. The patient reports no pain in his lower abdomen or groin, no constipation, and states that he enjoys his usual diet. He denies any use of alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. He has returned to work as a cruise ship attendant. Preoperative workup included chest radiography which demonstrated an opacification in his right middle lobe. The patient agrees to undergo computed tomography (CT) of his chest without contrast for further evaluation. The radiologist reports an 8 mm nodule in the patient's peripheral right middle lobe that has regular margins and appears calcified. One year later, the patient obtains another chest CT without contrast that reports the nodule size as 10 mm with similar characteristics. What is the most appropriate next step in management? Options: A) CT chest without contrast in 24 months B) Positive emission tomography (PET) of chest now C) Right middle lobectomy now D) Bronchoscopy-guided biopsy now Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.