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Tell me correct answers above 20 questions

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These are clinical surgery MCQs from a Final Year MBBS exam. I'll answer all 20 from my surgical knowledge — these are well-established clinical scenarios.

FINAL YEAR MBBS — SURGICAL UNIT IV: ALL 20 ANSWERS


Q1 — Audit cycle (perforated peptic ulcer) Setting standard (<6 hrs) → measuring practice (median 9 hrs) → implementing change (dedicated theatre) → re-audit (5 hrs) ✅ C) Implementing change and re-audit

Q2 — Research bias (questionnaire only given to complication-free patients) Only certain patients are selected to receive the questionnaire — this is systematic exclusion of a subgroup. ✅ A) Selection bias

Q3 — Left varicocele not disappearing on lying down + palpable lumbar mass A varicocele that doesn't decompress when supine suggests obstruction of the left renal vein or IVC — must rule out a retroperitoneal mass (e.g., renal cell carcinoma). ✅ B) CT abdomen

Q4 — Diabetic male, scrotal pain/swelling, black necrotic patches, crepitus, fever, high WBC Classic Fournier's gangrene: necrotizing fasciitis of the perineum/scrotum in a diabetic. ✅ B) Fournier's gangrene

Q5 — 30-year-old, painless right testicular solid mass, elevated AFP/β-hCG/LDH Suspected testicular malignancy — trans-scrotal biopsy is absolutely contraindicated. Inguinal orchidectomy is the gold standard for diagnosis and treatment. ✅ C) Inguinal orchidectomy

Q6 — 25-year-old, sudden severe left testicular pain, high-riding testis, absent cremasteric reflex Testicular torsion — a surgical emergency. Scrotal US wastes time. Urgent exploration is the answer. Manual detorsion may be attempted but definitive fix is surgical. ✅ D) Urgent scrotal exploration

Q7 — Oncological emergency requiring urgent management Cord compression (spinal cord compression from metastatic disease) is the only true oncological emergency among the options — requires urgent steroids ± radiotherapy/surgery. ✅ C) Cord compression

Q8 — T4, N1, M0 locally advanced breast cancer T4N1M0 is Stage IIIB (locally advanced). Primary treatment is neoadjuvant chemotherapy to downstage before surgery. Surgery alone is not appropriate upfront. ✅ A) Chemotherapy (neoadjuvant)

Q9 — 62-year-old, rectal adenocarcinoma, sessile mass 8 cm from anal verge, T2 N0 M0, confined to muscularis propria T2 N0 M0 rectal cancer at 8 cm — above the peritoneal reflection, node-negative, T2. Anterior resection with TME is appropriate. APR would be for very low rectal tumours. Local transanal excision is only for T1 tumours. ✅ B) Anterior resection with total mesorectal excision (TME)

Q10 — Chronic posterior midline anal fissure with sentinel pile and hypertrophied anal papilla The pathophysiology is internal anal sphincter hypertonia causing ischaemia. Lateral internal sphincterotomy directly addresses this by reducing sphincter tone. ✅ B) Lateral internal sphincterotomy

Q11 — 30-year-old woman, perianal abscess (tense, fluctuant swelling), febrile, 2 days A tense fluctuant perianal abscess requires immediate incision and drainage under anaesthesia. ✅ C) Incision and drainage under anaesthesia

Q12 — BMI 38 kg/m², well-controlled T2DM, listed for laparoscopic cholecystectomy as day case Class II obesity (BMI ≥35) is a strong contraindication to day-case surgery due to anaesthetic risk, OSA, and postoperative complications. ✅ B) BMI of 38 kg/m² (Class II obesity)

Q13 — 62-year-old, altered bowel habits, tenesmus, hard irregular mass on DRE at 6 cm from anal verge Suspected rectal carcinoma — the most appropriate initial investigation is colonoscopy with biopsy for tissue diagnosis and to assess the rest of the colon. ✅ C) Colonoscopy with biopsy

Q14 — Rectal polyp: which histological type has highest malignant potential? Villous adenoma has the highest risk of malignant transformation (~40%), compared to tubular (~5%) or tubulovillous (~20%). ✅ C) Villous adenoma

Q15 — Fistula-in-ano, anterior external opening, Goodsall's rule Goodsall's rule: anterior openings → straight radial tract to nearest crypt. Posterior openings → curved tract to posterior midline. ✅ B) Straight radial tract

Q16 — 68-year-old, AF, sudden severe left leg pain, cold limb, absent pulses, no flow below femoral artery Acute limb ischaemia from embolism (AF source) — requires urgent embolectomy (Fogarty catheter). ✅ C) Urgent embolectomy

Q17 — 60-year-old smoker, calf pain at 100 m, relieved by rest, ABI 0.7, superficial femoral artery stenosis Fontaine Stage IIa intermittent claudication with ABI 0.7 — first-line is conservative: exercise therapy + antiplatelet therapy. ✅ C) Exercise therapy + antiplatelets

Q18 — 72-year-old, incidental infrarenal AAA measuring 6.2 cm AAA ≥5.5 cm is the threshold for elective repair. At 6.2 cm, the rupture risk is significant — elective repair is indicated. ✅ C) Elective repair

Q19 — 45-year-old woman, painful right leg swelling after long travel, Doppler confirms popliteal vein thrombus (DVT) DVT treatment is anticoagulation (LMWH/DOACs). Surgery is not indicated; thrombolysis is not first-line for standard DVT. ✅ C) Anticoagulation

Q20 — 50-year-old post-mastectomy, chronic left arm swelling, non-pitting oedema, thickened skin This is lymphoedema following mastectomy (axillary lymph node dissection). The mainstay of management is compression therapy (manual lymphatic drainage + compression garments). ✅ C) Compression therapy

Summary Table

QAnswer
1C — Implementing change and re-audit
2A — Selection bias
3B — CT abdomen
4B — Fournier's gangrene
5C — Inguinal orchidectomy
6D — Urgent scrotal exploration
7C — Cord compression
8A — Chemotherapy (neoadjuvant)
9B — Anterior resection with TME
10B — Lateral internal sphincterotomy
11C — Incision and drainage under anaesthesia
12B — BMI of 38 kg/m² (Class II obesity)
13C — Colonoscopy with biopsy
14C — Villous adenoma
15B — Straight radial tract
16C — Urgent embolectomy
17C — Exercise therapy + antiplatelets
18C — Elective repair
19C — Anticoagulation
20C — Compression therapy
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