Here is a comprehensive question bank covering all topics discussed — Labor & Delivery, Ectopic Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Miscarriage, Placental Abruption, Placenta Previa, PAS, Anatomy, and Hypertensive Disorders — in standard MCQ format with explanations.
Obstetrics Question Bank
All Topics — MCQ with Answers and Explanations
SECTION 1: OBSTETRIC ANATOMY & LABOR
Q1. A primigravida is in active labor. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines. What station is this?
- A) Station −2
- B) Station +1
- C) Station 0
- D) Station −1
✅ Answer: C — Station 0
The ischial spines are the reference point for station 0. Above the spines = negative station; below = positive.
Q2. Which of the following correctly describes the stages of labor?
- A) First stage: full dilation to delivery of baby
- B) Second stage: onset of contractions to full cervical dilation
- C) Third stage: delivery of baby to delivery of placenta
- D) Fourth stage: from onset of contractions to full dilation
✅ Answer: C
- 1st stage: onset of contractions → full dilation (10 cm)
- 2nd stage: full dilation → delivery of baby
- 3rd stage: delivery of baby → delivery of placenta
Q3. A nulliparous woman has been in the latent phase of labor for 22 hours. Which of the following is TRUE?
- A) Immediate cesarean section is indicated
- B) This is within normal limits for a nullipara
- C) The latent phase is considered prolonged; conservative management is appropriate
- D) Amniotomy should be performed immediately
✅ Answer: C
Normal latent phase limit is <20 hours (nullipara) and <14 hours (multipara). At 22 hours it is prolonged. Management is conservative — therapeutic rest (morphine), observation, ± oxytocin. This alone is NOT an indication for cesarean delivery. Amniotomy is avoided in latent phase (increases infection risk).
Q4. According to the Consortium on Safe Labor (Zhang et al.), the active phase of labor is reliably defined beginning at:
- A) 3 cm cervical dilation
- B) 4 cm cervical dilation
- C) 6 cm cervical dilation
- D) 8 cm cervical dilation
✅ Answer: C — 6 cm
Contemporary evidence (Zhang et al.) redefined active phase as starting at 6 cm, not 4 cm. Active-phase arrest should not be diagnosed before 6 cm.
Q5. Which pelvic type is most favorable for normal vaginal delivery?
- A) Android
- B) Anthropoid
- C) Platypelloid
- D) Gynecoid
✅ Answer: D — Gynecoid
Gynecoid (round inlet) occurs in ~50% of women and is most favorable. Android is associated with dystocia; platypelloid with transverse arrest; anthropoid with occiput posterior.
Q6. During the 3rd stage of labor, which of the following signs does NOT indicate placental separation?
- A) Gush of blood
- B) Cord lengthening
- C) Uterus becomes globular and firm
- D) Fetal heart rate returns to baseline
✅ Answer: D
Signs of placental separation: uterus becoming globular and firm, gush of blood from vagina, cord lengthening. FHR changes are fetal, not related to placental separation.
Q7. Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening. Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to its use in the third trimester?
- A) Postdates pregnancy
- B) Prior low transverse cesarean section
- C) Multiparity
- D) PROM at term
✅ Answer: B — Prior uterine surgery (prior cesarean)
Misoprostol in the 3rd trimester in women with prior cesarean or major uterine surgery is associated with uterine rupture and is contraindicated.
Q8. A woman's BMI is 42 kg/m². Compared to a normal-weight nullipara, her first stage of labor is expected to be:
- A) The same duration
- B) More than 2 hours longer
- C) Shorter due to increased uterine tone
- D) 30 minutes longer
✅ Answer: B
Kominiarek et al. (Consortium on Safe Labor): BMI >40 kg/m² is associated with >2 hours longer first stage in nulliparous women.
SECTION 2: ECTOPIC PREGNANCY
Q9. Ectopic pregnancy is the leading cause of maternal death in which trimester?
- A) First trimester
- B) Second trimester
- C) Third trimester
- D) Equal across all trimesters
✅ Answer: A — First trimester
Ectopic pregnancy is the #1 cause of maternal death in the first trimester and the 3rd leading cause overall (4–10% of all maternal deaths).
Q10. A 28-year-old woman with amenorrhea for 6 weeks presents with pelvic pain and vaginal spotting. Urine hCG is positive. TVS shows an empty uterus. Serum hCG is 800 mIU/mL. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A) Diagnose ectopic pregnancy and administer methotrexate immediately
- B) Perform emergency laparoscopy
- C) Repeat hCG in 48 hours and repeat TVS when hCG rises above discriminatory zone
- D) Perform D&C immediately
✅ Answer: C
hCG is below the discriminatory zone (1,500–2,000 mIU/mL). An empty uterus below this level is indeterminate — could be very early IUP, failed IUP, or ectopic. Serial hCG in 48 hours is appropriate; ectopic cannot be diagnosed definitively yet from this data alone.
Q11. The discriminatory zone for transvaginal ultrasound is:
- A) 500–800 mIU/mL
- B) 1,500–2,000 mIU/mL
- C) 5,000–6,000 mIU/mL
- D) 10,000–15,000 mIU/mL
✅ Answer: B
At hCG ≥1,500–2,000 mIU/mL (TVS), an IUP should be visible. At this level with an empty uterus, ectopic pregnancy should be strongly suspected.
Q12. A patient's serial hCG rises 40% over 48 hours. What does this suggest?
- A) Normal viable intrauterine pregnancy
- B) Abnormal pregnancy — ectopic or failing IUP
- C) Normal variation within range
- D) Rapidly growing molar pregnancy
✅ Answer: B
Normal IUP hCG rises ≥66% in 48 hours. A rise of only 40% (below 66%) is abnormal — suggesting ectopic pregnancy or failing intrauterine pregnancy.
Q13. A serum progesterone level of 28 ng/mL in a patient with suspected ectopic pregnancy most likely indicates:
- A) Ectopic pregnancy
- B) Failing IUP
- C) Normal viable IUP
- D) Molar pregnancy
✅ Answer: C — Normal viable IUP
Progesterone >25 ng/mL → likely normal IUP (<2% are ectopic). Progesterone <15 ng/mL → seen in 81% of ectopics; <5 ng/mL → effectively excludes viable IUP.
Q14. Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to methotrexate for ectopic pregnancy?
- A) hCG level of 3,000 mIU/mL
- B) Ectopic mass of 3.2 cm
- C) Breastfeeding
- D) No cardiac activity detected
✅ Answer: C — Breastfeeding
Absolute contraindications to MTX include: IUP, immunodeficiency, significant anemia/leukopenia/thrombocytopenia, MTX sensitivity, active pulmonary disease, active PUD, significant hepatic/renal dysfunction, breastfeeding, hemodynamic instability.
Q15. A patient received MTX for ectopic pregnancy 5 days ago. She now presents with moderate lower abdominal pain but is hemodynamically stable. hCG drawn today is decreasing appropriately. What is the most likely explanation?
- A) Treatment failure with impending rupture
- B) "Separation pain" — expected effect of MTX
- C) Allergic reaction to MTX
- D) Ovarian torsion
✅ Answer: B — Separation pain
Lower abdominal pain occurring 3–7 days after MTX is common ("separation pain") — from tubal abortion or hematoma formation. If patient is stable and hCG is decreasing → observe; NSAIDs for pain relief.
Q16. Which ectopic pregnancy location carries the highest mortality risk due to its rich blood supply and delayed rupture?
- A) Ampullary
- B) Fimbrial
- C) Isthmic
- D) Interstitial (cornual)
✅ Answer: D — Interstitial (cornual)
Interstitial ectopic lies within the myometrium (intramural tube), surrounded by myometrium. Rupture can occur at 9–16 weeks and causes massive hemorrhage due to the rich myometrial blood supply.
Q17. Which of the following findings on pelvic ultrasound is DIAGNOSTIC (not just suggestive) of ectopic pregnancy?
- A) Adnexal mass without intrauterine pregnancy
- B) Moderate free fluid in cul-de-sac
- C) Empty uterus with hCG above discriminatory zone
- D) Cardiac activity detected in the fallopian tube
✅ Answer: D
Ectopic cardiac activity = diagnostic. Options A and B are suggestive. Option C is indeterminate (highly suspicious but not diagnostic alone).
Q18. Heterotopic pregnancy (IUP + ectopic simultaneously) has an incidence of up to how much with IVF?
- A) 1 in 30,000
- B) 1 in 4,000
- C) 1 in 100
- D) 1 in 500
✅ Answer: C — up to 1 in 100 (1%) with IVF
Spontaneous rate: ~1/3,000 (historically 1/30,000). With IVF: up to 1%. Always consider heterotopic in ART patients even when IUP is confirmed on US.
SECTION 3: MOLAR PREGNANCY & GTD
Q19. A complete hydatidiform mole has which karyotype?
- A) 69,XXY (triploid)
- B) 46,XX (all maternal)
- C) 46,XX (all paternal — androgenetic)
- D) 45,X (monosomy)
✅ Answer: C — 46,XX all paternal (androgenetic)
Complete moles: 46,XX (90%) or 46,XY (10%), all chromosomes of paternal origin. Formed by fertilization of an empty ovum by one sperm (duplicates) or two sperm.
Q20. A partial mole has which karyotype?
- A) 46,XX all paternal
- B) 69,XXX or 69,XXY (triploid)
- C) 45,X (monosomy)
- D) 46,XY normal
✅ Answer: B — Triploid (69,XXX or 69,XXY)
Partial moles result from fertilization of a normal ovum by two sperm → triploid karyotype.
Q21. A 19-year-old presents at 16 weeks with vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound shows uterine size larger than expected for dates, no identifiable fetal heartbeat, and a "snowstorm" echogenic pattern filling the uterus. BP is 160/105 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Placenta previa
- B) Complete hydatidiform mole
- C) Placental abruption
- D) Threatened miscarriage
✅ Answer: B — Complete hydatidiform mole
Snowstorm US + uterine size > dates + preeclampsia before 24 weeks = pathognomonic for complete molar pregnancy. Preeclampsia before 24 weeks almost always means molar pregnancy.
Q22. Which of the following is the MOST important complication to monitor for after evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole?
- A) Uterine rupture
- B) Cervical stenosis
- C) Persistent/rising serum hCG indicating GTN
- D) Ovarian failure from theca lutein cysts
✅ Answer: C — Persistent/rising hCG indicating GTN
After complete mole evacuation: 15–20% develop GTN (local invasion or metastasis). Weekly hCG monitoring is essential. Any plateau, rise, or persistence beyond 6 months → GTN → oncology referral.
Q23. What is the risk of choriocarcinoma specifically after a complete hydatidiform mole?
- A) 15–20%
- B) 2.5%
- C) 10%
- D) 0.5%
✅ Answer: B — 2.5%
Complete mole: local invasion (invasive mole) in 15%, metastasis in 4%, choriocarcinoma specifically ~2.5%.
Q24. A patient who had a complete molar pregnancy asks when she can attempt pregnancy. After achieving hCG remission, she should wait:
- A) 3 months
- B) 6 months
- C) 12 months (1 year)
- D) 2 years
✅ Answer: C — 12 months
After complete mole → avoid pregnancy for 1 year after hCG remission to allow adequate serial hCG monitoring without confusion from pregnancy hCG.
Q25. Which of the following is a HIGH-RISK marker for developing post-molar GTN?
- A) Uterine size equal to dates
- B) hCG of 50,000 mIU/mL
- C) hCG >100,000 mIU/mL + uterine size > dates + theca lutein cysts ≥6 cm
- D) Age under 30
✅ Answer: C
Three high-risk signs: hCG >100,000 mIU/mL, excessive uterine size, theca lutein cysts ≥6 cm. Patients with any one of these: local invasion 31%, metastases 8.8%.
Q26. Why is misoprostol-only uterine evacuation NOT preferred for molar pregnancy?
- A) Insufficient cervical ripening
- B) Risk of incomplete evacuation, hemorrhage, infection, and trophoblastic pulmonary embolism
- C) It is too expensive
- D) It does not work before 12 weeks
✅ Answer: B
Medical evacuation risks: incomplete evacuation (up to 25%), hemorrhage, infection, trophoblastic embolization → respiratory failure and death. Suction curettage is preferred.
Q27. A patient with complete molar pregnancy has a serum hCG of 200,000 mIU/mL and is tachycardic with warm skin and tremor before evacuation. What must be done BEFORE proceeding to the operating room?
- A) Administer misoprostol for cervical ripening
- B) Administer β-adrenergic blocking agents to prevent thyroid storm
- C) Give IV methotrexate
- D) Place cervical cerclage
✅ Answer: B — β-blockers before evacuation
Clinically evident hyperthyroidism (from hCG's TSH-like activity) → anesthesia/surgery can precipitate thyroid storm (hyperthermia, delirium, tachycardia, cardiovascular collapse). Must treat with β-blockers before proceeding.
SECTION 4: MISCARRIAGE (SPONTANEOUS ABORTION)
Q28. A patient at 8 weeks presents with light vaginal bleeding. TVS shows a gestational sac with a fetal pole showing cardiac activity. Cervix is closed. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Inevitable abortion
- B) Threatened abortion
- C) Missed abortion
- D) Incomplete abortion
✅ Answer: B — Threatened abortion
Threatened: bleeding + closed cervix + viable IUP on US. ~50% will continue to term.
Q29. Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester spontaneous abortion?
- A) Uterine septum
- B) Antiphospholipid syndrome
- C) Chromosomal abnormalities
- D) Luteal phase defect
✅ Answer: C — Chromosomal abnormalities
~50–60% of first-trimester losses have chromosomal abnormalities. Trisomies are most common; trisomy 16 is the most frequent.
Q30. An embryo with a crown-rump length of 8 mm on TVS with no cardiac activity. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Threatened miscarriage
- B) Nonviable (embryonic demise / missed abortion)
- C) Normal — cardiac activity not expected until 10 weeks
- D) Partial molar pregnancy
✅ Answer: B — Nonviable
Absent cardiac activity when CRL ≥7 mm on TVS = nonviable pregnancy (embryonic demise).
Q31. Which type of miscarriage is the most treatable cause of recurrent pregnancy loss?
- A) Chromosomal aneuploidy
- B) Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)
- C) Uterine septum
- D) Advanced maternal age
✅ Answer: B — Antiphospholipid syndrome
APS is the most treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage — treated with aspirin ± heparin during pregnancy with good outcomes.
Q32. A patient presents with vaginal bleeding, dilated cervix, and products of conception palpable at the os. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Missed abortion
- B) Incomplete abortion
- C) Inevitable abortion
- D) Threatened abortion
✅ Answer: C — Inevitable abortion
Inevitable: bleeding + dilated cervix + POC not yet passed. Once POC partially expelled with open cervix = incomplete.
Q33. What is the dose of misoprostol for medical management of missed or incomplete abortion?
- A) 25 µg orally
- B) 200 µg orally
- C) 800 µg vaginally
- D) 400 µg sublingually only
✅ Answer: C — 800 µg vaginally
Standard dose for missed/incomplete/inevitable abortion: 800 µg vaginally. (Note: 25 µg vaginally is for labor induction at term.)
SECTION 5: PLACENTAL ABRUPTION
Q34. What is the hallmark clinical feature of placental abruption?
- A) Painless bright red bleeding
- B) Sudden fetal tachycardia with no bleeding
- C) Painful dark vaginal bleeding
- D) Rupture of membranes with bloody fluid
✅ Answer: C — Painful dark vaginal bleeding
Abruption hallmark = painful (uterine tenderness) + dark blood. Contrasts with previa (painless, bright red).
Q35. Approximately what percentage of placental abruptions present with NO external (vaginal) bleeding?
- A) 1–2%
- B) 5%
- C) 10–20% (concealed hemorrhage)
- D) 50%
✅ Answer: C — 10–20%
Up to 10–20% of abruptions are concealed — all hemorrhage is retroplacental with no external bleeding, yet massive internal blood loss may be occurring.
Q36. The MOST important risk factor for placental abruption (highest relative risk increase) is:
- A) Maternal hypertension
- B) Cocaine use
- C) Prior placental abruption
- D) Cigarette smoking
✅ Answer: C — Prior placental abruption
Previous abruption → up to 20-fold increased risk; with 2 prior abruptions → 25% recurrence risk. Chronic hypertension → 5× risk, superimposed preeclampsia → 8×.
Q37. Which laboratory test is the MOST SENSITIVE for detecting DIC in placental abruption?
- A) Platelet count
- B) Prothrombin time
- C) Fibrin degradation products (FDP)
- D) Hemoglobin level
✅ Answer: C — Fibrin degradation products
FDP are "almost always elevated" in abruption-related DIC and are the most sensitive lab test. Fibrinogen is the most important serial monitor.
Q38. A patient at 28 weeks has moderate abruption. The mother is stable, fetal monitoring is reassuring, and there is no coagulopathy. The most appropriate management is:
- A) Immediate cesarean delivery
- B) Expectant management with betamethasone, close monitoring
- C) Induction of labor with oxytocin
- D) Tocolysis with magnesium and discharge home
✅ Answer: B
At 20–34 weeks with stable mother and fetus → expectant management is appropriate. Betamethasone given for fetal lung maturity. Patient monitored closely — she remains at risk for evolving abruption.
Q39. A patient is in a motor vehicle accident at 30 weeks. She has no pain or bleeding. When can she safely be discharged?
- A) Immediately after examination
- B) After 2 hours of monitoring
- C) After 6 hours of continuous CTG monitoring if reassuring
- D) After 24 hours regardless of symptoms
✅ Answer: C — 6 hours of monitoring
Asymptomatic after trauma → monitor CTG for minimum 6 hours; if reassuring → discharge. If bleeding or contractions → observe at least 24 hours (abruption may present up to 24 hours post-trauma).
Q40. What is Couvelaire uterus?
- A) Placenta completely covering the cervical os
- B) Uterus infiltrated with blood penetrating through the myometrium to the peritoneum
- C) Uterine rupture from prior cesarean scar
- D) Abnormal placental attachment to the myometrium
✅ Answer: B
Couvelaire uterus (uteroplacental apoplexy): retroplacental blood penetrates the full uterine wall thickness into the peritoneal cavity. Myometrium becomes bruised and atonic → risk of PPH.
Q41. Normal fibrinogen level in pregnancy is:
- A) 150–250 mg/dL
- B) 200–300 mg/dL
- C) 400–650 mg/dL
- D) 100–150 mg/dL
✅ Answer: C — 400–650 mg/dL
Normal fibrinogen in pregnancy is elevated (400–650 mg/dL). Values <300 mg/dL indicate significant coagulopathy. In severe abruption: fibrinogen <150 mg/dL.
SECTION 6: PLACENTA PREVIA
Q42. A patient at 24 weeks presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. The emergency physician wants to perform a digital vaginal examination to assess the cervix. What should you do?
- A) Allow the examination — it is safe
- B) Perform a speculum examination first to identify source of bleeding
- C) Immediately perform digital exam to assess dilation
- D) Stop — do NOT perform digital examination until placenta previa is excluded by ultrasound
✅ Answer: D — Absolutely no digital examination
Digital examination in placenta previa can precipitate catastrophic, life-threatening hemorrhage. US must exclude previa first.
Q43. At 18 weeks gestation, routine anatomy scan shows the placenta completely overlying the internal cervical os. What should the patient be told?
- A) She will definitely need a cesarean delivery
- B) She has placenta previa and needs immediate hospitalization
- C) 90% of 2nd trimester previas resolve by term — follow-up US at 32 weeks
- D) She needs cervical cerclage placement immediately
✅ Answer: C
At 16 weeks, placenta occupies 25–50% of uterine surface. 90% of complete previas found in 2nd trimester resolve by term due to trophotropism and LUS elongation. Follow-up at 32 weeks, then 36 weeks.
Q44. Why does the bladder need to be EMPTY before performing TVS for suspected placenta previa?
- A) Full bladder prevents adequate TVS imaging
- B) Full bladder pushes uterine walls together, creating a false-positive previa diagnosis
- C) Full bladder prevents the probe from being inserted
- D) Full bladder increases the risk of hemorrhage
✅ Answer: B
A full bladder compresses the lower uterine segment, pushing the anterior and posterior walls together → artificially makes placenta appear to cover the os (false-positive previa).
Q45. Placenta previa is confirmed at 36 weeks. The patient is stable with no active bleeding. What is the appropriate delivery plan?
- A) Allow labor to begin spontaneously
- B) Cesarean delivery now — do not delay
- C) Elective cesarean at or just after 36 weeks gestation
- D) Await spontaneous labor at 40 weeks
✅ Answer: C
Elective cesarean at 36–37 weeks for confirmed previa — risk of sudden, potentially fatal hemorrhage outweighs any fetal advantage of waiting beyond 36 weeks. Amniocentesis for lung maturity not needed.
Q46. The lower uterine segment (LUS) does NOT contract as effectively as the upper uterus after placental delivery. What complication does this cause in placenta previa?
- A) Uterine rupture
- B) Postpartum hemorrhage from LUS atony
- C) Cervical laceration
- D) Placenta accreta
✅ Answer: B — PPH from LUS atony
The LUS (where previa implants) has poor contractile ability → placental bed does not close properly after delivery → PPH. Anticipate with uterotonics (oxytocin, Methergine, carboprost, B-Lynch suture, Bakri balloon).
Q47. Which of the following about vasa previa is TRUE?
- A) It is associated with fundal placental implantation
- B) Fetal survival is 97% with antenatal diagnosis vs. 44% without
- C) Management is expectant until term
- D) The vessels are protected by Wharton's jelly
✅ Answer: B
With antenatal diagnosis → planned cesarean → 97% neonatal survival. Without diagnosis → membrane rupture tears unprotected fetal vessels → exsanguination in minutes → only 44% survival. Vessels in vasa previa are NOT supported by Wharton's jelly (that's the danger).
SECTION 7: PLACENTA ACCRETA SPECTRUM (PAS)
Q48. A woman with her 4th cesarean delivery has an anterior placenta previa. What is her approximate risk of placenta accreta?
- A) 3%
- B) 11%
- C) 40%
- D) 61%
✅ Answer: D — 61%
With placenta previa and 4th cesarean (≥3 prior C/S) → risk of accreta = 61–67%. This is the critical risk table to memorize.
Q49. Which layer's absence allows trophoblasts to invade the myometrium in PAS?
- A) Wharton's jelly
- B) Nitabuch fibrinoid layer (decidua basalis)
- C) Chorion laeve
- D) Amnion
✅ Answer: B — Nitabuch fibrinoid layer
Normally the Nitabuch layer in the decidua basalis acts as a barrier to trophoblast invasion. In PAS, this layer is absent or deficient (from prior uterine scar) → trophoblasts invade freely.
Q50. Which ultrasound finding is most characteristic of placenta accreta?
- A) Placenta completely covering the os
- B) Loss of retroplacental hypoechoic zone + placental lacunae ("Swiss cheese" appearance)
- C) Posterior placenta with normal clear zone
- D) Theca lutein cysts
✅ Answer: B
Key US findings: loss of the normal retroplacental hypoechoic "clear zone" + irregular hypoechoic lacunae (Swiss cheese/snowstorm) within the placenta + bridging vessels + <1mm myometrial thickness.
Q51. What is the recommended gestational age for planned delivery of confirmed PAS?
- A) 28–30 weeks
- B) 34–35 weeks after corticosteroids
- C) 38–40 weeks
- D) 32 weeks
✅ Answer: B — 34–35 weeks
Planned delivery at 34–35 weeks (after betamethasone for lung maturity). Rationale: before labor begins; planned reduces hemorrhage risk dramatically vs. emergency delivery. No amniocentesis for lung maturity needed.
Q52. Which of the following is the DEFINITIVE treatment for PAS?
- A) Manual placental removal at cesarean
- B) Misoprostol + oxytocin to facilitate placental separation
- C) Planned cesarean hysterectomy with placenta left in situ
- D) Uterine artery embolization alone
✅ Answer: C
Placenta left in situ → cesarean hysterectomy. Attempting manual removal causes catastrophic hemorrhage as placenta fragments. UAE is an adjunct, not definitive treatment.
Q53. Methotrexate is used for conservative management of PAS. Which of the following is TRUE?
- A) MTX is highly effective for PAS and should be used routinely
- B) MTX is unequivocally NOT recommended — no proven efficacy and one death reported from complications
- C) MTX should be given prophylactically after every cesarean
- D) MTX replaces the need for serial hCG monitoring
✅ Answer: B
Berek & Novak / Creasy & Resnik: "Methotrexate is unequivocally not advised for conservative management of accreta" — no proven benefit and a death has been reported from MTX complications in this setting.
SECTION 8: HYPERTENSIVE DISORDERS OF PREGNANCY
Q54. Preeclampsia is defined as:
- A) BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with no proteinuria
- B) BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks + proteinuria >300 mg/24 hr (or PCR ≥0.3)
- C) BP ≥160/110 at any time in pregnancy
- D) Chronic HTN diagnosed before pregnancy
✅ Answer: B
Preeclampsia = BP ≥140/90 on two occasions ≥4 hours apart, after 20 weeks, AND proteinuria >300 mg/24 hr (or PCR ≥0.3, or dipstick ≥2+). Note: edema is no longer a criterion.
Q55. Which of the following is a feature of preeclampsia WITH SEVERE FEATURES?
- A) BP of 138/88 mmHg
- B) Proteinuria of 250 mg/24 hours
- C) Platelet count of 85,000/µL
- D) Creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL
✅ Answer: C — Thrombocytopenia (<100,000/µL)
Severe features include: SBP ≥160 or DBP ≥110, thrombocytopenia (<100,000/µL), renal insufficiency (Cr >1.1 or doubling), impaired liver function (transaminases ×2), pulmonary edema, new-onset headache, visual disturbances, oliguria (<500 mL/24h).
Q56. A patient with preeclampsia with severe features at 37 weeks. What is the appropriate management?
- A) Expectant management until 40 weeks
- B) Deliver within 24 hours + IV magnesium sulfate
- C) Start antihypertensives and monitor weekly
- D) Immediate cesarean only
✅ Answer: B
Severe preeclampsia at any gestation requires delivery within 24 hours + IV MgSO₄ for seizure prophylaxis. Route of delivery based on obstetric indications (not always cesarean).
Q57. What is the magnesium sulfate loading dose for preeclampsia seizure prophylaxis?
- A) 2 g IV over 30 minutes
- B) 4–6 g IV over 15–20 minutes, then 2 g/hr maintenance
- C) 10 g IM
- D) 1 g/hr from the start
✅ Answer: B
MgSO₄ protocol: loading dose 4–6 g IV over 15–20 min, then maintenance 1–3 g/hr (therapeutic level 5–8 mg/dL). Continue for 24 hours postpartum.
Q58. The FIRST sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity is:
- A) Respiratory depression
- B) Cardiac arrest
- C) Loss of deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
- D) Urine output decreasing
✅ Answer: C — Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Mg toxicity signs in order: loss of DTRs (~7–10 mg/dL) → respiratory depression (~15 mg/dL) → cardiac arrest (~20 mg/dL). Monitor DTRs, RR, and urine output.
Q59. What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
- A) Naloxone 0.4 mg IV
- B) Calcium gluconate 1 g IV
- C) Furosemide 40 mg IV
- D) Flumazenil
✅ Answer: B — Calcium gluconate 1 g IV
Calcium gluconate reverses MgSO₄ toxicity. Must always be at the bedside when MgSO₄ is infusing.
Q60. HELLP syndrome is diagnosed by which combination of findings?
- A) Hypertension + edema + leukocytosis
- B) Hemolysis + elevated liver enzymes + low platelets
- C) Hypotension + elevated LFTs + high platelets
- D) Hematuria + elevated creatinine + low BP
✅ Answer: B
HELLP = Hemolysis + Elevated Liver enzymes + Low Platelets. Occurs in 5–10% of preeclamptic patients. Often presents with RUQ/epigastric pain — can occur WITHOUT severe HTN or proteinuria.
Q61. Eclampsia is defined as:
- A) Hypertension >160/110 in pregnancy
- B) Preeclampsia + new-onset grand mal seizures not attributable to other causes
- C) HELLP syndrome with severe hypertension
- D) Hypertensive emergency in the 1st trimester
✅ Answer: B
Eclampsia = preeclampsia + grand mal (tonic-clonic) seizures not explained by other conditions. Can occur antepartum (most common), intrapartum, or up to 7 days postpartum. MgSO₄ is the drug of choice.
Q62. Which antihypertensive medications are CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy?
- A) Labetalol and methyldopa
- B) Nifedipine and hydralazine
- C) ACE inhibitors and ARBs
- D) Beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers
✅ Answer: C — ACE inhibitors and ARBs
ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated — fetotoxic (renal tubular dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, fetal death). Safe options: methyldopa, labetalol, nifedipine, hydralazine.
Q63. A pregnant patient has BP 168/112 mmHg. According to protocol, which IV medication should be given for acute severe hypertension?
- A) Furosemide IV
- B) IV labetalol or IV hydralazine
- C) IV enalapril
- D) Oral amlodipine
✅ Answer: B — IV labetalol or IV hydralazine
For acute severe HTN in pregnancy (DBP persistently >110 mmHg): IV labetalol or IV hydralazine; oral nifedipine is also acceptable. Target: DBP <105 mmHg (not aggressively lower — risk of placental ischemia).
Q64. The treatment of choice for chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:
- A) Lisinopril
- B) Valsartan
- C) α-methyldopa (Aldomet) or labetalol
- D) Atenolol
✅ Answer: C
First-line for chronic HTN in pregnancy: α-methyldopa (Aldomet) — central-acting α-adrenergic; or labetalol — α and β blocker. Both have long safety records. ACE inhibitors/ARBs are contraindicated; atenolol associated with IUGR.
SECTION 9: MIXED / INTEGRATED QUESTIONS
Q65. A woman at 30 weeks presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Uterus is soft and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is normal. The FIRST action should be:
- A) Perform digital cervical examination
- B) Obtain IV access, continuous CTG, and perform transabdominal US — DO NOT perform digital exam
- C) Immediate cesarean delivery
- D) Perform amniotomy
✅ Answer: B
Painless bright red bleeding → suspect placenta previa → no digital exam. Stabilize, CTG, US to confirm. Digital exam only when previa excluded.
Q66. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with preeclampsia before 24 weeks?
- A) Complete molar pregnancy
- B) Multiple gestation
- C) Placenta accreta
- D) Antiphospholipid syndrome
✅ Answer: C — Placenta accreta
Preeclampsia before 24 weeks is associated with: complete molar pregnancy (most classically), multiple gestation, antiphospholipid syndrome, hydrops fetalis, and other causes of exaggerated placentation. PAS itself does not typically cause early preeclampsia.
Q67. The MOST common cause of peripartum hysterectomy is:
- A) Uterine rupture
- B) Placenta previa alone
- C) Placenta accreta spectrum
- D) Postpartum hemorrhage from uterine atony
✅ Answer: C — Placenta accreta spectrum
PAS is the most common indication for emergency peripartum hysterectomy in the modern obstetric era.
Q68. Which of the following pairs is CORRECTLY matched?
- A) Abruption → painless bright red bleeding
- B) Previa → painful dark bleeding + rigid uterus
- C) Abruption → painful dark bleeding + hypertonic uterus
- D) Vasa previa → maternal hemorrhage without fetal distress
✅ Answer: C
- Abruption: painful, dark blood, hypertonic/tender uterus
- Previa: painless, bright red, soft uterus
- Vasa previa: fetal hemorrhage (fetal blood vessels) → fetal distress + bleeding when membranes rupture
Q69. What is the "snowstorm" appearance on ultrasound associated with?
- A) Placenta accreta
- B) Complete hydatidiform mole
- C) Placental abruption
- D) Dichorionic twin pregnancy
✅ Answer: B — Complete hydatidiform mole
Snowstorm = echogenic mass with multiple small anechoic (cystic) spaces, no fetal parts = classic complete mole appearance.
Q70. Rh immune globulin (300 µg) should be administered in which of the following obstetric scenarios?
- A) Rh-negative patient with placenta previa and heavy bleeding who has NOT yet received her 28-week dose
- B) Rh-positive patient with placental abruption
- C) Rh-negative patient who received their 28-week prophylaxis and now has threatened miscarriage
- D) All pregnant patients regardless of Rh status
✅ Answer: A
Rh immune globulin should be given to Rh-negative, non-immunized women who have not yet received their 28-week dose and are now bleeding (previa, abruption, ectopic, miscarriage, trauma). Given within 72 hours of the event.
SCORING GUIDE
| Score | Level |
|---|
| 63–70 | Excellent — Mastery level |
| 50–62 | Good — Minor review needed |
| 35–49 | Fair — Systematic topic review needed |
| <35 | Needs comprehensive review |
Questions based on: Creasy & Resnik's Maternal-Fetal Medicine; Berek & Novak's Gynecology; Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine; Rosen's Emergency Medicine; Textbook of Family Medicine 9e; Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease.