A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which is the most significant pathophysiology that contributes to the development of this condition? a) Decreased testosterone production b) Increased insulin-like growth factor c) Increased estrogen levels d) Reduced blood supply
"With aging, testosterone levels decline while estrogen levels remain unchanged and may increase due to peripheral conversion of androgens; estrogens may act synergistically with DHT to drive growth of epithelial and stromal cells, both of which express estrogen receptors." — Robbins & Kumar Basic Pathology, p. 659
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| a) Decreased testosterone | Testosterone does fall with age, but this alone does not cause BPH — in fact, BPH is driven by DHT activity, not testosterone directly. Reduced testosterone is a consequence of aging, not the key driver. |
| b) Increased insulin-like growth factor | IGF plays a minor modulatory role, but is not considered the most significant pathophysiological contributor. |
| d) Reduced blood supply | Ischemia is not a recognized primary mechanism in BPH development. |