Embryo 1. Stages of prophase 1 2. Leptotene - homology study Begins 3.

Embryo 1. Stages of prophase 1 2. Leptotene - homology study Begins 3. Zygonema - result of homology study, formation of synoptonemal complex,synapsis 4. Pachytene - fully formed synoptonemal complex,crossing over 5. Diplotene - chiasmata 6. Diakinesis - terminalization 7. Metaphase 1 -* Homologous pairs* allign 8. Metaphase 2- sister chromatids allign 9. Anaphase - cohesin degraded , chromosome disjunction 10. Misdirected PGCs - teratomas 11. Oogenesis 12. Surge - LH 13. maturation of follicles - FSH 14. primary oocyte arrested in - Diplotene stage of prophase 1 15. Secondary oocyte arrested in - metaphase 2 (for 3 hours) 16. glycoprotien coat around oocyte - zona pellucida 17. Leyding cells - testosterone (LH) 18. Sertoli cells - binds with FSH to nourish and stimulate fluid production 19. Spermatozoa contains acrosome for entering zona pellucida 20. Pre natal and post natal days 21. Blastomere - totipotent 22. Compaction - 8 cell stage 23. Morulla - 16 cell stage 24. Inner cell mass - embryo proper 25. Outer cell mass - trophoblast 26. Rotational cleavage - asymmetrical and asynchronous 27. mRNA are degraded at 2 cell stage 28. Embryonic genes activated at 4 cell stage 29. Embryonic genes are inhibited by methylation 30. Na+ guids the water to enter cell 31. Water also enters by osmosis 32. Embryoblast divides into epiblast (dorsally )and hypoblast(ventrally) 33. AVE- formed by hypoblast (cranial-caudal) 34. Bilaminar germ disc - epiblast and hypoblast meet 35. Day 8 - trophoblast divides into cyto and syncytio 36. Day 9- lacunar stage 37. Day 10-12 - uteroplasmic circulation 38. Cytotrophoblast - primary villi 39. Once go through every layer and formation 40. Posterior end - primitive streak 41. Anterior end - primitive node 42. Epiblast - source of all 3 germ layers 43. Cells with rod like structure - notochord 44. Precordial plate - forebrain formation 45. Primitive streak disappears by end of 4th week 46. Embryo is suspended with connecting stalk at - day 20 47. Where ectoderm mesoderm and endoderm are present 48. Folds with depression - neural groove 49. Elevated edges - neural folds 50. Fusion proceeds cranially and caudally, zipper fashion 51. Anterior - cranial 52. Posterior - caudal 53. Dorsal, ventral, cranial, caudal pe ek question aayega 54. NCC Pe ek question aayega 55. Otic placodes - inner ear 56. Lens placodes - lens of eyes 57. Notochord - longitudinal axis of embryo 58. remnants of notochord tissue form - chordomas tumour 59. Lateral mesoderm - two layers 60. Parietal - cover the amnion 61. Visceral - cover the yolk salk 62. Paraxial mesoderm organize - somites on day 20 63. Somites used to accurately determine the age of embryo 64. Sclerotome - vertebrae and ribs 65. Dermatome - back dermis 66. Myotome - muscles 67. Vasculogenesis - blood vessel formation from precursor cells 68. Angiogenesis - from pre-existing vessels 69. Hindgut forms - allantois (in birds and reptiles ) 70. Space between visceral and parietal - coelom 71. Ectoderm form brain and spinal cord 72. Endoderm form - gut tube 73. Mesoderm holds two together 74. Primitive streak forms the beginning of gastrulation 75. Pericardial cavity - heart 76. Pleural cavity - lungs 77. Embryonic development in days ek baar dekhlo 78. Placenta - fetomaternal organ 79. Fetal component - extraembryonic mesoderm 80. Maternal component - uterine endometrium 81. Decidua parietalis - not involved in implantation 82. Chorion frondosum - becomes placenta 83. Maternal blood - free flowing 84. hcG - first protein hormone 85. CRL - sitting height 86. CHL - standing height 87. Length of pregnancy 88. 280days /40 weeks after LNMP 89. 266 days/38 weeks after fertilization 90. At 3rd month - face becomes human looking 91. 12th week - external genitalia develop ( examined by ultrasound) 92. 4th and 5th month - lanugo hair, eyebrows and head hair also visible 93. First spontaneous movement - 7.5 weeks 94. 5th month movement of fetus can be felt by mother 95. 6th- 7th month fetus CRL - 25cm and 1100g 96. 6th month - skin becomes reddish and has a wrinkled appearance 97. Last 2 months - deposition of subcutaneous fat 98. End of intrauterine life - skin is covered by whitish fatty substance (vernix caseosa ) 99. End of 9th month - skull has largest circumference 100.At the time of birth - fetus is 3000-3400g ,CRL-36cm,CHL-50cm 😮‍💨😮‍💨 Covert this into mcq

Here are 100 MCQs based on your notes:

EMBRYOLOGY MCQ BANK

1. What is the correct order of stages in Prophase I of meiosis?

A) Zygotene → Leptotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis
B) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis ✅
C) Pachytene → Leptotene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Diakinesis
D) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene → Diakinesis → Diplotene

2. During which stage of Prophase I does homology study begin?

A) Zygotene
B) Pachytene
C) Leptotene ✅
D) Diplotene

3. The synaptonemal complex is formed during which stage?

A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene ✅
C) Pachytene
D) Diakinesis

4. Crossing over occurs during which stage of Prophase I?

A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene ✅
D) Diplotene

5. Chiasmata are visible during which stage of Prophase I?

A) Zygotene
B) Pachytene
C) Diplotene ✅
D) Diakinesis

6. Terminalization of chiasmata occurs during:

A) Pachytene
B) Diplotene
C) Diakinesis ✅
D) Metaphase I

7. During Metaphase I, what aligns at the metaphase plate?

A) Sister chromatids
B) Individual chromosomes
C) Homologous pairs ✅
D) Tetrads only

8. During Metaphase II, what aligns at the metaphase plate?

A) Homologous pairs
B) Sister chromatids ✅
C) Bivalents
D) Tetrads

9. What is degraded during Anaphase leading to chromosome disjunction?

A) Fibronectin
B) Laminin
C) Cohesin ✅
D) Actin

10. Misdirected Primordial Germ Cells (PGCs) result in:

A) Seminoma
B) Teratoma ✅
C) Choriocarcinoma
D) Dysgerminoma

11. Which hormone triggers the LH surge in oogenesis?

A) FSH
B) Progesterone
C) Estrogen
D) LH itself ✅ (the LH surge is the key event)

12. Maturation of ovarian follicles is primarily stimulated by:

A) LH
B) FSH ✅
C) Prolactin
D) hCG

13. The primary oocyte is arrested at which stage?

A) Metaphase II
B) Prophase I - Diplotene stage ✅
C) Metaphase I
D) Anaphase I

14. The secondary oocyte is arrested at which stage?

A) Prophase I
B) Metaphase I
C) Metaphase II ✅
D) Anaphase II

15. For how long is the secondary oocyte arrested in Metaphase II?

A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours ✅
D) 6 hours

16. The glycoprotein coat surrounding the oocyte is called:

A) Corona radiata
B) Zona pellucida ✅
C) Granulosa layer
D) Theca interna

17. Testosterone is produced by which cells under LH stimulation?

A) Sertoli cells
B) Spermatogonia
C) Leydig cells ✅
D) Sustentacular cells

18. Which cells bind FSH and help nourish spermatogonia while stimulating fluid production?

A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells ✅
C) Myoid cells
D) Spermatids

19. The acrosome of spermatozoa is important for:

A) Providing energy via mitochondria
B) Motility of the flagellum
C) Penetrating the zona pellucida ✅
D) DNA packaging

20. Blastomeres are described as:

A) Pluripotent
B) Multipotent
C) Totipotent ✅
D) Unipotent

21. Compaction occurs at which cell stage?

A) 4-cell stage
B) 8-cell stage ✅
C) 16-cell stage
D) 32-cell stage

22. The morula consists of how many cells?

A) 8
B) 12
C) 16 ✅
D) 32

23. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst gives rise to:

A) Trophoblast
B) Placenta
C) Embryo proper ✅
D) Chorion

24. The outer cell mass of the blastocyst forms:

A) Embryo proper
B) Amnion
C) Trophoblast ✅
D) Yolk sac

25. Human cleavage is described as:

A) Radial and synchronous
B) Rotational, asymmetrical and asynchronous ✅
C) Spiral and equal
D) Bilateral and synchronous

26. Maternal mRNA is degraded at which stage?

A) 1-cell stage
B) 2-cell stage ✅
C) 4-cell stage
D) 8-cell stage

27. Embryonic genome activation occurs at which stage in humans?

A) 2-cell stage
B) 4-cell stage ✅
C) 8-cell stage
D) Morula stage

28. Embryonic gene expression is inhibited by:

A) Acetylation
B) Phosphorylation
C) Methylation ✅
D) Ubiquitination

29. Which ion guides water entry into the blastocyst cavity?

A) K⁺
B) Ca²⁺
C) Na⁺ ✅
D) Cl⁻

30. Water also enters the blastocyst cavity by:

A) Active transport
B) Osmosis ✅
C) Facilitated diffusion
D) Pinocytosis

31. The embryoblast divides into epiblast and hypoblast. The epiblast is located:

A) Ventrally
B) Laterally
C) Dorsally ✅
D) Cranially

32. The hypoblast is located:

A) Dorsally
B) Cranially
C) Ventrally ✅
D) Caudally

33. The Anterior Visceral Endoderm (AVE) is formed by:

A) Epiblast
B) Syncytiotrophoblast
C) Hypoblast ✅
D) Cytotrophoblast

34. The bilaminar germ disc is formed when:

A) Epiblast and trophoblast meet
B) Epiblast and hypoblast meet ✅
C) Ectoderm and endoderm fuse
D) Mesoderm splits into two layers

35. On approximately which day does the trophoblast differentiate into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast?

A) Day 6
B) Day 7
C) Day 8 ✅
D) Day 10

36. The lacunar stage of implantation occurs on:

A) Day 8
B) Day 9 ✅
C) Day 11
D) Day 13

37. Uteroplacental circulation is established between:

A) Days 8-10
B) Days 10-12 ✅
C) Days 12-14
D) Days 14-16

38. Primary villi are formed by:

A) Syncytiotrophoblast alone
B) Cytotrophoblast ✅
C) Extraembryonic mesoderm
D) Hypoblast

39. The primitive streak is located at which end of the embryo?

A) Anterior end
B) Cranial end
C) Posterior end ✅
D) Lateral end

40. The primitive node is located at which end?

A) Posterior
B) Anterior ✅
C) Lateral right
D) Lateral left

41. The epiblast is the source of:

A) Only ectoderm
B) Ectoderm and mesoderm only
C) All three germ layers ✅
D) Only mesoderm and endoderm

42. The notochord is described as having:

A) Tubular structure
B) Spiral structure
C) Rod-like structure ✅
D) Plate-like structure

43. The precordial plate is associated with the development of:

A) Heart
B) Forebrain ✅
C) Spinal cord
D) Foregut

44. The primitive streak disappears by the end of which week?

A) 2nd week
B) 3rd week
C) 4th week ✅
D) 5th week

45. The embryo is suspended by the connecting stalk on approximately:

A) Day 14
B) Day 16
C) Day 20 ✅
D) Day 25

46. The neural groove is formed by:

A) Elevated edges of the neural plate
B) Folds with a depression ✅
C) Fusion of somites
D) Invagination of mesoderm

47. The elevated edges of the neural plate are called:

A) Neural grooves
B) Neural folds ✅
C) Neural crests
D) Neural tubes

48. Neural tube closure proceeds in which fashion?

A) Caudal to cranial only
B) Cranial to caudal only
C) Zipper fashion - both cranially and caudally ✅
D) Lateral to medial

49. Otic placodes give rise to:

A) Lens of the eye
B) Inner ear ✅
C) Olfactory epithelium
D) Anterior pituitary

50. Lens placodes give rise to:

A) Inner ear
B) Cornea
C) Lens of the eye ✅
D) Vitreous humor

51. The notochord serves as the:

A) Source of all three germ layers
B) Longitudinal axis of the embryo ✅
C) Precursor of vertebral discs only
D) Origin of the gut tube

52. Remnants of notochord tissue can give rise to which tumor?

A) Teratoma
B) Chordoma ✅
C) Seminoma
D) Neuroblastoma

53. The lateral mesoderm divides into how many layers?

A) One
B) Two ✅
C) Three
D) Four

54. The parietal layer of lateral mesoderm covers:

A) Yolk sac
B) Gut tube
C) Amnion ✅
D) Chorion

55. The visceral layer of lateral mesoderm covers:

A) Amnion
B) Chorion
C) Yolk sac ✅
D) Neural tube

56. Somites begin to form from paraxial mesoderm on approximately:

A) Day 14
B) Day 17
C) Day 20 ✅
D) Day 25

57. The most accurate method of determining embryo age is by counting:

A) Crown-rump length
B) Somite pairs ✅
C) Days since fertilization
D) Weeks since LNMP

58. The sclerotome of somites gives rise to:

A) Muscles
B) Back dermis
C) Vertebrae and ribs ✅
D) Connective tissue of limbs

59. The dermatome of somites gives rise to:

A) Vertebrae
B) Muscles
C) Back dermis ✅
D) Cartilage

60. The myotome of somites gives rise to:

A) Bones
B) Dermis
C) Muscles ✅
D) Tendons

61. Formation of blood vessels from precursor (angioblast) cells is called:

A) Angiogenesis
B) Hematopoiesis
C) Vasculogenesis ✅
D) Lymphangiogenesis

62. Formation of new blood vessels from pre-existing vessels is called:

A) Vasculogenesis
B) Angiogenesis ✅
C) Arteriogenesis
D) Neovascularization

63. In birds and reptiles, the allantois is formed from:

A) Foregut
B) Midgut
C) Hindgut ✅
D) Lateral mesoderm

64. The coelom is the space between:

A) Epiblast and hypoblast
B) Amnion and chorion
C) Visceral and parietal layers of lateral mesoderm ✅
D) Ectoderm and mesoderm

65. The brain and spinal cord are derived from:

A) Mesoderm
B) Endoderm
C) Ectoderm ✅
D) Neural crest cells

66. The gut tube is derived from:

A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm ✅
D) Trophoblast

67. Gastrulation begins with the formation of:

A) Neural tube
B) Notochord
C) Primitive streak ✅
D) Somites

68. The pericardial cavity contains:

A) Lungs
B) Stomach
C) Heart ✅
D) Liver

69. The pleural cavity contains:

A) Heart
B) Lungs ✅
C) Abdominal organs
D) Kidneys

70. The placenta is best described as:

A) Purely fetal organ
B) Purely maternal organ
C) Fetomaternal organ ✅
D) Extraembryonic organ only

71. The fetal component of the placenta is derived from:

A) Uterine endometrium
B) Decidua basalis
C) Extraembryonic mesoderm ✅
D) Trophoblast alone

72. The maternal component of the placenta is:

A) Chorion frondosum
B) Amnion
C) Uterine endometrium ✅
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm

73. Which part of the decidua is NOT involved in implantation?

A) Decidua basalis
B) Decidua capsularis
C) Decidua parietalis ✅
D) Decidua vera

74. Chorion frondosum eventually becomes:

A) Amnion
B) Umbilical cord
C) Placenta ✅
D) Yolk sac

75. The first protein hormone produced during pregnancy is:

A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) hCG ✅
D) hPL

76. CRL stands for Crown-Rump Length and represents:

A) Standing height
B) Sitting height ✅
C) Head circumference
D) Foot length

77. CHL (Crown-Heel Length) represents:

A) Sitting height
B) Head-to-toe length (standing height) ✅
C) Biparietal diameter
D) Abdominal circumference

78. The duration of pregnancy calculated from the Last Normal Menstrual Period (LNMP) is:

A) 266 days / 38 weeks
B) 280 days / 40 weeks ✅
C) 270 days / 39 weeks
D) 294 days / 42 weeks

79. The duration of pregnancy calculated from fertilization is:

A) 280 days / 40 weeks
B) 270 days / 39 weeks
C) 266 days / 38 weeks ✅
D) 252 days / 36 weeks

80. By which month does the face acquire a distinctly human appearance?

A) 2nd month
B) 3rd month ✅
C) 4th month
D) 5th month

81. External genitalia can first be examined by ultrasound at:

A) 8th week
B) 10th week
C) 12th week ✅
D) 16th week

82. Lanugo hair, eyebrows, and head hair first become visible during:

A) 3rd and 4th months
B) 4th and 5th months ✅
C) 5th and 6th months
D) 6th and 7th months

83. The first spontaneous movements of the embryo occur at:

A) 5 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 7.5 weeks ✅
D) 10 weeks

84. Fetal movements can first be felt by the mother during:

A) 3rd month
B) 4th month
C) 5th month ✅
D) 6th month

85. At 6-7 months, the approximate CRL and weight of the fetus is:

A) CRL 20 cm, 800g
B) CRL 25 cm, 1100g ✅
C) CRL 30 cm, 1500g
D) CRL 35 cm, 2000g

86. During the 6th month, the skin of the fetus appears:

A) Smooth and pale
B) Covered with vernix caseosa
C) Reddish and wrinkled ✅
D) Pigmented and dry

87. Subcutaneous fat deposition occurs predominantly during:

A) 4th and 5th months
B) 6th and 7th months
C) Last 2 months ✅
D) 3rd month only

88. Vernix caseosa is described as a:

A) Reddish fluid
B) Whitish fatty substance ✅
C) Clear amniotic fluid
D) Yellow pigmented secretion

89. At the end of the 9th month, which fetal structure has the largest circumference?

A) Abdomen
B) Chest
C) Skull ✅
D) Shoulder

90. At birth, the normal fetal weight and CHL are approximately:

A) 2500g, CHL 45cm
B) 3000-3400g, CHL 50cm ✅
C) 3500g, CHL 55cm
D) 2800g, CHL 48cm

91. The synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs during:

A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene ✅
C) Pachytene
D) Diakinesis

92. Which structure is fully formed during the Pachytene stage?

A) Kinetochore
B) Synaptonemal complex ✅
C) Spindle apparatus
D) Nuclear envelope

93. Neural crest cells (NCC) are derived from which germ layer?

A) Endoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Ectoderm ✅
D) Trophoblast

94. The anterior neuropore corresponds to which direction?

A) Caudal
B) Dorsal
C) Cranial ✅
D) Ventral

95. The posterior neuropore corresponds to which direction?

A) Cranial
B) Ventral
C) Caudal ✅
D) Dorsal

96. The mesoderm holds ectoderm and endoderm together. What is the primary role of mesoderm?

A) Forms gut lining
B) Forms brain tissue
C) Structural support and binding ✅
D) Produces enzymes

97. Which germ layer gives rise to the gut tube?

A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm ✅
D) Neural crest

98. Homologous chromosome pairs fully complete synapsis and the synaptonemal complex is fully formed during:

A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene ✅
D) Diplotene

99. Which of the following correctly pairs the somite derivative with its product?

A) Sclerotome → Muscles
B) Myotome → Dermis
C) Dermatome → Back dermis ✅
D) Sclerotome → Blood vessels

100. Which of the following statements about the secondary oocyte is CORRECT?

A) It is arrested at Prophase I - Diplotene
B) It completes meiosis II before ovulation
C) It is arrested at Metaphase II until fertilization ✅
D) It is arrested at Metaphase I

All 100 MCQs covered! Each question maps directly to your notes. Best of luck with your exam! 🎯

Cyto 1. Ionic bond is formed by transfer of electrons 2. Fatty acid has hydrocarbon chain and carboxyl group 3. Macromolecules are formed by condensation 4. And breakdown by hydrolysis 5. Lipids are* amphipatic* 6. Lipid bilayer movement-flip flop( rare) 7. Proteins with long polysaccharide -proteoglycans 8. Glycocalyx- carbohydrate rich layer 9. Energy needed in active transport -pumps 10. Osmosis -ispe ek question tha 11. Phagocytosis, pinocytosis, endocytosis are vesicular transport 12. Protein synthesis and degradation in cytosol 13. Rbc-no nucleus 14. Skeletal muscles and oestoclasts -many nuclei (synctia) 15. Liver-two nuclei 16. Chromatin is wrapped around the histones to form-nucleosome 17. Euchromatin -active 18. Nucleolus-rRNA transcribed 19. Barr body- inactivated x chromosome 20. Mitochondria - inherited from mother 21. RER - protein synthesis 22. SER - lipid and steroid synthesis 23. Golgi apparatus - protein modification 24. Lysosomes - phagocytosis 25. Peroxisome - detoxification 26. Proteosome - ubiquitin 27. Microtubules -13 protofilaments 28. Kinesins- +ve 29. Dyneins- -ve 30. Actin has myosin protien 31. Help in muscle contraction 32. Intermediate filaments - strongest filaments, found within nucleus 33. Intermediate ke types dekhlo ek baar 34. DNA Replication - s phase 35. S phase - S-Cdk 36. M phase - M-Cdk 37. Condensin - chromosome condensation 38. Cohesins - holding of chromatids 39. Go through each phase once 40. Cytokinesis by cleavage furrow formation 41. And by contractile ring 42. Cell junctions and functions 43. Apostasis and necrosis 44. Hematopoietic stem cells are multipotent 45. Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent 46. Microscope mein textbook ke last mein 10 questions dekhlo Give me MCQ type

Here are MCQs based on your Cytology notes:

CYTOLOGY MCQ BANK

1. Ionic bonds are formed by:

A) Sharing of electrons
B) Transfer of electrons ✅
C) Hydrogen bonding
D) Van der Waals forces

2. A fatty acid molecule consists of:

A) Amino group and hydrocarbon chain
B) Phosphate group and glycerol
C) Hydrocarbon chain and carboxyl group ✅
D) Nitrogenous base and sugar

3. Macromolecules are formed by which type of reaction?

A) Hydrolysis
B) Oxidation
C) Condensation ✅
D) Reduction

4. Breakdown of macromolecules occurs by:

A) Condensation
B) Phosphorylation
C) Hydrolysis ✅
D) Denaturation

5. Lipids are described as amphipathic, which means they:

A) Are fully hydrophilic
B) Are fully hydrophobic
C) Have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions ✅
D) Cannot interact with water at all

6. Which type of lipid bilayer movement is considered rare?

A) Lateral diffusion
B) Rotational movement
C) Flip-flop ✅
D) Flexion movement

7. Proteins with long polysaccharide chains attached are called:

A) Glycoproteins
B) Lipoproteins
C) Proteoglycans ✅
D) Mucoproteins

8. The carbohydrate-rich layer on the cell surface is called:

A) Plasma membrane
B) Glycocalyx ✅
C) Cell wall
D) Extracellular matrix

9. Active transport across cell membranes requires:

A) No energy
B) A concentration gradient only
C) Energy via pumps ✅
D) Aquaporins

10. Osmosis involves the movement of:

A) Solute from low to high concentration
B) Water from high solute to low solute concentration
C) Water from low solute to high solute concentration ✅
D) Ions against a concentration gradient

11. Which of the following is a form of vesicular transport?

A) Osmosis
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Pinocytosis ✅
D) Ion channel transport

12. Which of the following is NOT a vesicular transport?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Pinocytosis
C) Endocytosis
D) Osmosis ✅

13. Protein synthesis and degradation primarily occur in the:

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Cytosol ✅
D) Golgi apparatus

14. Which cell type normally lacks a nucleus?

A) Platelets
B) Red blood cells ✅
C) Lymphocytes
D) Neutrophils

15. Which of the following cell types are syncytia (multinucleated)?

A) RBCs and platelets
B) Skeletal muscle cells and osteoclasts ✅
C) Neurons and hepatocytes
D) Lymphocytes and macrophages

16. How many nuclei does a typical liver (hepatocyte) cell contain?

A) One
B) Two ✅
C) Three
D) None

17. Chromatin wrapped around histones forms a structure called:

A) Chromatid
B) Chromosome
C) Nucleosome ✅
D) Chromonema

18. Euchromatin is associated with:

A) Inactive genes
B) Highly condensed DNA
C) Actively transcribed genes ✅
D) Barr bodies

19. The nucleolus is the site of transcription of:

A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA ✅
D) snRNA

20. A Barr body represents:

A) Active X chromosome
B) Inactivated X chromosome ✅
C) Y chromosome condensation
D) Autosomal heterochromatin

21. How many Barr bodies would you expect in a cell with 46,XX karyotype?

A) 0
B) 1 ✅
C) 2
D) 3

22. Mitochondria are inherited from:

A) Father
B) Both parents equally
C) Mother ✅
D) Either parent randomly

23. The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is primarily involved in:

A) Lipid synthesis
B) Steroid synthesis
C) Protein synthesis ✅
D) Detoxification

24. The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is primarily involved in:

A) Protein synthesis
B) rRNA transcription
C) Lipid and steroid synthesis ✅
D) DNA replication

25. Protein modification (glycosylation, sorting, packaging) occurs in:

A) RER
B) SER
C) Golgi apparatus ✅
D) Lysosomes

26. Lysosomes are primarily responsible for:

A) Protein synthesis
B) Steroid synthesis
C) Phagocytosis and intracellular digestion ✅
D) Detoxification of hydrogen peroxide

27. Peroxisomes are primarily responsible for:

A) Protein modification
B) ATP production
C) Detoxification ✅
D) Ribosome assembly

28. The proteasome is associated with degradation of proteins tagged with:

A) Phosphate groups
B) Ubiquitin ✅
C) Acetyl groups
D) Methyl groups

29. Microtubules are made up of how many protofilaments?

A) 9
B) 11
C) 13 ✅
D) 15

30. Kinesin motors move cargo in which direction along microtubules?

A) Negative end (toward cell center)
B) Positive end (toward cell periphery) ✅
C) Both directions equally
D) Perpendicular to the microtubule

31. Dynein motors move cargo toward the:

A) Positive end of microtubules
B) Negative end of microtubules ✅
C) Actin filaments
D) Intermediate filaments

32. Actin filaments are associated with which motor protein for muscle contraction?

A) Kinesin
B) Dynein
C) Myosin ✅
D) Nexin

33. Which cytoskeletal filament is the strongest and is also found within the nucleus?

A) Microtubules
B) Actin filaments
C) Intermediate filaments ✅
D) Protofilaments

34. Which of the following is an intermediate filament?

A) Actin
B) Tubulin
C) Keratin ✅
D) Myosin

35. DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

A) G1 phase
B) G2 phase
C) S phase ✅
D) M phase

36. Which cyclin-CDK complex is active during S phase?

A) G1-Cdk
B) S-Cdk ✅
C) M-Cdk
D) G2-Cdk

37. Which cyclin-CDK complex drives cells into M phase (mitosis)?

A) S-Cdk
B) G1-Cdk
C) M-Cdk ✅
D) G2-Cdk

38. Chromosome condensation during mitosis is facilitated by:

A) Cohesins
B) Condensins ✅
C) Kinesins
D) Lamins

39. Holding of sister chromatids together is the function of:

A) Condensins
B) Cohesins ✅
C) Dyneins
D) Kinesins

40. In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by:

A) Cell plate formation
B) Cleavage furrow formation and contractile ring ✅
C) Vesicle fusion
D) Nuclear fragmentation

41. The contractile ring responsible for cytokinesis is made up of:

A) Microtubules
B) Intermediate filaments
C) Actin and myosin ✅
D) Collagen fibers

42. Which cell junction allows direct communication between adjacent cells?

A) Tight junction
B) Desmosome
C) Gap junction ✅
D) Hemidesmosome

43. Which cell junction prevents paracellular leakage of molecules?

A) Gap junction
B) Tight junction ✅
C) Desmosome
D) Adherens junction

44. Desmosomes are primarily involved in:

A) Cell-to-cell communication
B) Cell-to-extracellular matrix adhesion
C) Mechanical strength and cell-to-cell adhesion ✅
D) Ion transport

45. Apoptosis (programmed cell death) is best described as:

A) Accidental cell death with inflammation
B) Controlled, programmed cell death without inflammation ✅
C) Death due to physical injury
D) Death caused by osmotic lysis

46. Necrosis differs from apoptosis in that necrosis:

A) Is programmed
B) Does not cause inflammation
C) Causes inflammation and is uncontrolled ✅
D) Requires caspase activation

47. Hematopoietic stem cells are classified as:

A) Totipotent
B) Pluripotent
C) Multipotent ✅
D) Unipotent

48. Embryonic stem cells are classified as:

A) Totipotent
B) Pluripotent ✅
C) Multipotent
D) Unipotent

49. Which of the following correctly pairs the organelle with its function?

A) SER - Protein synthesis
B) RER - Lipid synthesis
C) Golgi apparatus - Protein modification ✅
D) Peroxisome - rRNA transcription

50. Which statement about the lipid bilayer is CORRECT?

A) Flip-flop movement is very common
B) Lateral diffusion is extremely rare
C) Lipids are amphipathic molecules ✅
D) The bilayer is completely rigid

BONUS QUESTIONS - Cell Cycle Phases

51. During G1 phase, the cell primarily:

A) Replicates DNA
B) Grows and prepares for DNA synthesis ✅
C) Undergoes mitosis
D) Completes cytokinesis

52. During G2 phase, the cell:

A) Replicates DNA
B) Undergoes cytokinesis
C) Grows and prepares for mitosis ✅
D) Is in a quiescent state

53. Cells that exit the cell cycle permanently are said to be in:

A) S phase
B) G2 phase
C) G0 phase ✅
D) M phase

54. The nuclear envelope breaks down during which stage of mitosis?

A) Anaphase
B) Telophase
C) Prometaphase ✅
D) Cytokinesis

55. Which of the following intermediate filaments is specific to neurons?

A) Keratin
B) Vimentin
C) Neurofilaments ✅
D) Desmin

56. Nuclear lamins are a type of:

A) Microtubule
B) Actin filament
C) Intermediate filament ✅
D) Protofilament

57. Phagocytosis is the vesicular uptake of:

A) Fluids
B) Small molecules
C) Large particles and microorganisms ✅
D) Hormones

58. Pinocytosis is the vesicular uptake of:

A) Large particles
B) Fluids and dissolved solutes ✅
C) Receptor-bound ligands only
D) Bacteria

59. Which of the following does NOT require energy?

A) Active transport
B) Phagocytosis
C) Facilitated diffusion ✅
D) Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump

60. The Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump moves:

A) 3 Na⁺ in, 2 K⁺ out
B) 2 Na⁺ out, 3 K⁺ in
C) 3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in ✅
D) 2 Na⁺ in, 3 K⁺ out

All 60 MCQs done! They cover every point in your notes with added depth on cell cycle phases, junctions, and transport. Best of luck! 🎯

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