Based on the two topics we covered (Renal Tubular Acidosis + Normal Nephron Physiology), here are the most frequently asked NEET PG style MCQs with explanations:
NEET PG MCQs - Renal Tubular Acidosis & Nephron Physiology
SECTION A: RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS
Q1. A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent renal stones and is found to have hypokalemia, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, and urine pH of 6.5 despite systemic acidosis. Which condition is most likely associated?
- A) Sjögren syndrome
- B) Diabetes mellitus
- C) Multiple myeloma
- D) Cystinosis
Answer: A) Sjögren syndrome
Type 1 (distal) RTA - urine pH always >5.5 + hypokalemia + nephrolithiasis. Most common acquired cause in adults = Sjögren syndrome. Diabetes → Type 4 RTA. Multiple myeloma → Type 2 RTA. Cystinosis → Type 2 RTA in children.
Q2. A patient on Amphotericin B develops metabolic acidosis. The mechanism of RTA in this case is:
- A) Decreased HCO3- reabsorption in PCT
- B) Back-leak of H+ through damaged apical membrane
- C) Aldosterone deficiency
- D) Reduced H+/K+-ATPase synthesis
Answer: B) Back-leak of H+ through damaged apical membrane
Amphotericin B increases membrane permeability in the collecting duct → secreted H+ leaks back into the cell → cannot maintain H+ gradient → Type 1 RTA (back-leak subtype).
Q3. Which type of RTA is associated with nephrocalcinosis and nephrolithiasis in up to 70% of patients?
- A) Type 2
- B) Type 4
- C) Type 1
- D) Type 3
Answer: C) Type 1
Distal RTA causes alkaline urine + hypercalciuria + hypocitraturia → ideal conditions for calcium phosphate stone/nephrocalcinosis formation. Type 2 and 4 rarely cause stones.
Q4. A child presents with rickets, glycosuria (normal blood glucose), aminoaciduria, and phosphaturia. The most likely cause is:
- A) Type 1 RTA
- B) Fanconi syndrome (Type 2 RTA)
- C) Type 4 RTA
- D) Bartter syndrome
Answer: B) Fanconi syndrome (Type 2 RTA)
Fanconi syndrome = generalized PCT dysfunction → loses glucose, amino acids, phosphate, uric acid, HCO3-. Classic presentation: rickets + glycosuria with normal blood glucose.
Q5. A patient with HIV on Tenofovir develops metabolic acidosis, glycosuria, phosphaturia, and aminoaciduria. Which type of RTA is this?
- A) Type 1
- B) Type 2
- C) Type 3
- D) Type 4
Answer: B) Type 2
Tenofovir causes Fanconi syndrome/Type 2 (proximal) RTA. Other drugs: ifosfamide, cidofovir, aristolochic acid.
Q6. A diabetic patient on ACE inhibitor has mild metabolic acidosis with serum K+ = 6.2 mEq/L. Urine pH = 5.0. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Type 1 RTA
- B) Type 2 RTA
- C) Type 4 RTA
- D) Diarrhea-induced acidosis
Answer: C) Type 4 RTA
Type 4 RTA = hyperkalemia + mild NAGMA + urine pH <5.5 (H+-ATPase intact but NH4+ low due to hyperkalemia). Most common cause = diabetic nephropathy (hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism). ACE inhibitor worsens it.
Q7. In Type 2 RTA, alkali therapy with NaHCO3 paradoxically:
- A) Raises serum K+ further
- B) Worsens hypokalemia
- C) Normalizes urine pH permanently
- D) Reduces nephrocalcinosis
Answer: B) Worsens hypokalemia
NaHCO3 delivers more HCO3- to the distal tubule → increased K+ secretion → worsening hypokalemia. That is why K+ supplementation is always co-administered.
Q8. Urine anion gap (UAG) is calculated as:
- A) Serum (Na+ + K+) - Serum Cl-
- B) Urine Na+ - Urine Cl-
- C) Urine (Na+ + K+) - Urine Cl-
- D) Urine Na+ + Urine K+ + Urine Cl-
Answer: C) Urine (Na+ + K+) - Urine Cl-
A positive UAG = low urine NH4+ = renal cause (RTA). A negative UAG = high urine NH4+ = extrarenal cause (diarrhea). NH4+ is excreted with Cl-, so high NH4+ → high Cl- → UAG becomes negative.
Q9. Type 3 RTA is associated with which classic triad?
- A) Deafness + rickets + nephrocalcinosis
- B) Osteopetrosis + cerebral calcification + mental retardation
- C) Polyuria + polydipsia + hyperkalemia
- D) Glycosuria + aminoaciduria + hyperphosphatemia
Answer: B) Osteopetrosis + cerebral calcification + mental retardation
Type 3 RTA = Carbonic anhydrase II (CA-II) deficiency. CA-II is needed in both PCT and DCT + osteoclasts + brain. Deficiency → mixed RTA + osteopetrosis (osteoclasts fail to resorb bone) + cerebral calcification.
Q10. Which drug causes Type 1 RTA by specifically blocking the H+-ATPase?
- A) Amphotericin B
- B) Acetazolamide
- C) Topiramate
- D) Lithium
Answer: C) Topiramate
Topiramate and acetazolamide inhibit carbonic anhydrase → reduce H+ generation → Type 1 (and Type 2) RTA. Amphotericin B → back-leak. Lithium → nephrogenic DI but can also cause Type 1 RTA by damaging collecting duct cells.
SECTION B: NEPHRON PHYSIOLOGY
Q11. The normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in an adult male is:
- A) 90 mL/min
- B) 125 mL/min
- C) 180 mL/min
- D) 650 mL/min
Answer: B) 125 mL/min
GFR = 125 mL/min. Total filtrate/day = 180 L. Renal plasma flow = 650 mL/min. Filtration fraction = GFR/RPF = 125/650 = ~20%.
Q12. Furosemide (loop diuretic) acts by blocking which transporter?
- A) NHE3 in PCT
- B) NCC in DCT
- C) NKCC2 in thick ascending limb
- D) ENaC in collecting duct
Answer: C) NKCC2 in thick ascending limb
NKCC2 = Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in TAL. Furosemide blocks it → no salt reabsorption → no concentration gradient → dilute urine + loss of Na, K, Cl. TAL is also impermeable to water → this is where dilution happens.
Q13. Which segment of the nephron is impermeable to water and actively pumps out Na/K/2Cl, thereby creating the medullary concentration gradient?
- A) Thin descending limb
- B) Proximal convoluted tubule
- C) Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
- D) Collecting duct
Answer: C) Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
TAL is called the diluting segment - salt leaves, water cannot → filtrate becomes dilute, medulla becomes hypertonic. This gradient is what allows ADH to concentrate urine in the collecting duct.
Q14. ADH (Vasopressin) acts on the collecting duct to insert which water channel?
- A) Aquaporin-1
- B) Aquaporin-2
- C) Aquaporin-4
- D) ROMK
Answer: B) Aquaporin-2
ADH → V2 receptor → cAMP → AQP-2 vesicles inserted into luminal membrane → water reabsorption. AQP-1 is always present in PCT and descending loop (not regulated). Absence of AQP-2 = Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus.
Q15. Thiazide diuretics act on which transporter in which segment?
- A) NKCC2 in TAL
- B) NCC in DCT
- C) ENaC in collecting duct
- D) NHE3 in PCT
Answer: B) NCC in DCT
NCC = Na-Cl cotransporter in the Distal Convoluted Tubule. Thiazides block NCC → Na+ and water loss. Paradoxically used in nephrogenic DI because they cause mild volume depletion → enhanced PCT reabsorption → less water to collecting duct → less polyuria.
Q16. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts on the PCT to:
- A) Increase phosphate reabsorption
- B) Decrease phosphate reabsorption
- C) Increase glucose reabsorption
- D) Decrease calcium reabsorption
Answer: B) Decrease phosphate reabsorption
PTH inhibits Na+/phosphate cotransporter in PCT → phosphaturia → lowers serum phosphate. PTH simultaneously increases Ca2+ reabsorption in DCT. In hyperparathyroidism: ↓ phosphate + ↑ Ca2+.
Q17. Which hormone causes potassium secretion by the principal cells of the collecting duct?
- A) ADH
- B) Aldosterone
- C) PTH
- D) ANP
Answer: B) Aldosterone
Aldosterone → opens ENaC (Na+ enters) → lumen becomes negative → K+ exits via ROMK → K+ secretion. Also promotes H+ secretion from alpha-intercalated cells. Loss of aldosterone → hyperkalemia + metabolic acidosis (Type 4 RTA).
Q18. A patient is found to have glycosuria, aminoaciduria, phosphaturia with hypophosphatemia, hypouricemia, and low-molecular-weight proteinuria. Which segment of the nephron is primarily dysfunctional?
- A) Glomerulus
- B) Proximal convoluted tubule
- C) Loop of Henle
- D) Collecting duct
Answer: B) Proximal convoluted tubule
This is the classic description of Fanconi syndrome - all the substrates normally reabsorbed 100% in the PCT are lost. Glomerular disease → proteinuria (large proteins), not these findings.
Q19. The macula densa is located at which anatomical junction?
- A) Where PCT meets the loop of Henle
- B) Where the thick ascending limb returns to its own glomerulus
- C) Where the collecting duct opens into the renal pelvis
- D) At the tip of the loop of Henle
Answer: B) Where the thick ascending limb returns to its own glomerulus
Macula densa = specialized cells at the end of TAL that lie adjacent to the afferent arteriole of the same nephron's glomerulus. They sense NaCl concentration in tubular fluid and regulate GFR via tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF). Also stimulate renin secretion when NaCl is low.
Q20. In which condition does the thick ascending limb fail to reabsorb NaCl due to a genetic mutation in NKCC2 or ROMK, leading to hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis?
- A) Gitelman syndrome
- B) Bartter syndrome
- C) Liddle syndrome
- D) Gordon syndrome
Answer: B) Bartter syndrome
Bartter syndrome = genetic defect in TAL transporters (NKCC2, ROMK, ClC-Kb, Barttin) → mimics chronic furosemide use → hypokalemia + metabolic alkalosis + hypercalciuria + normal/low BP. Gitelman = DCT defect (NCC mutation) → hypokalemia + alkalosis + hypomagnesemia + hypocalciuria. Liddle = gain of function ENaC → hypertension + hypokalemia.
Quick Exam Cheat Sheet
| Diuretic | Site | Transporter blocked |
|---|
| Furosemide | TAL | NKCC2 |
| Thiazide | DCT | NCC |
| Amiloride/Triamterene | Collecting duct | ENaC |
| Spironolactone | Collecting duct | Aldosterone receptor |
| Acetazolamide | PCT | Carbonic anhydrase |
| RTA Type | K+ | Urine pH | Key association |
|---|
| Type 1 | Low | >5.5 always | Sjögren, Ampho B, nephrocalcinosis |
| Type 2 | Low | <5.5 baseline | Fanconi, cystinosis, tenofovir |
| Type 4 | High | <5.5 | Diabetic nephropathy, ACEi |