Here are 15 exam-style questions across all three topics. No answers are highlighted — options are presented cleanly, with full explanations at the end of each question.
Mixed Obstetric MCQs — PPH · APH · Twin Pregnancy
POSTPARTUM HAEMORRHAGE
Question 1
A 26-year-old woman delivers vaginally after a 19-hour labour augmented with oxytocin. Immediately after placental delivery, she bleeds 800 mL. The uterus is palpable at the umbilicus and feels soft and non-contracted. Her blood pressure is 90/58 mmHg and pulse 118 bpm. The bladder has been catheterised and is empty. Oxytocin 10 IU IV has been given.
Which is the most appropriate next step?
- A) Administer ergometrine 0.5 mg IM and commence uterine massage
- B) Proceed immediately to emergency hysterectomy
- C) Insert a Bakri balloon and close the vagina
- D) Administer carboprost 250 mcg IM
- E) Examine under anaesthesia for retained placenta
Question 2
A 33-year-old woman with known bronchial asthma (currently on salbutamol inhaler) delivers vaginally at term. She develops PPH with estimated blood loss of 1100 mL. The uterus is atonic. Oxytocin 10 IU IV and ergometrine 0.5 mg IM have both been administered with inadequate response.
Which uterotonic agent should be avoided in this patient?
- A) Misoprostol 800 mcg sublingual
- B) Carboprost 250 mcg IM
- C) Oxytocin infusion 40 IU in 500 mL normal saline
- D) Tranexamic acid 1 g IV
- E) Dinoprostone (PGE2) suppository
Question 3
A 29-year-old primigravida delivers vaginally at 39 weeks. Thirty-five minutes after delivery, the placenta has not been expelled despite controlled cord traction and oxytocin. There is no active bleeding. The uterus is well-contracted.
What is the most appropriate management?
- A) Administer a second dose of oxytocin 10 IU and wait a further 30 minutes
- B) Apply fundal pressure (Credé manoeuvre) to expel the placenta
- C) Transfer to theatre for manual removal of placenta under anaesthesia
- D) Perform immediate bimanual compression
- E) Administer misoprostol 600 mcg orally and reassess in one hour
Question 4
A 41-year-old woman (G5P4) with a BMI of 38 is undergoing her fifth vaginal delivery. After delivery of the placenta, she develops massive PPH with 2800 mL blood loss. Despite oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, intrauterine balloon tamponade, and bilateral uterine artery ligation, bleeding persists. She is tachycardic (HR 130 bpm) and hypotensive (BP 78/46 mmHg). She has previously consented to hysterectomy if required.
Which is the most appropriate definitive management?
- A) Apply a second B-Lynch compression suture
- B) Bilateral internal iliac artery ligation as a final attempt to conserve the uterus
- C) Peripartum hysterectomy
- D) Transfer to interventional radiology for uterine artery embolisation
- E) Pack the uterine cavity with gauze and reassess after 30 minutes
Question 5
A 30-year-old woman with Type 1 von Willebrand disease delivers vaginally at 38 weeks. She develops PPH with 950 mL blood loss. The uterus is well-contracted and the perineum is intact. Bleeding appears to be oozing diffusely from the vaginal mucosa. Coagulation: APTT mildly prolonged, PT normal, fibrinogen 3.1 g/L, platelets 178 × 10⁹/L.
Which combination is most appropriate?
- A) Fresh frozen plasma + platelet transfusion
- B) Cryoprecipitate + ergometrine 0.5 mg IM
- C) Tranexamic acid 1 g IV + desmopressin (DDAVP) 0.3 mcg/kg IV
- D) Factor VIII concentrate alone
- E) Carboprost 250 mcg IM + oxytocin infusion
ANTEPARTUM HAEMORRHAGE
Question 6
A 32-year-old woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. There is no uterine tenderness. The uterus is soft. CTG is reassuring. Ultrasound confirms the placenta is located on the anterior wall, with its lower edge covering the internal os completely.
What is the most likely diagnosis and the most important immediate investigation to avoid?
- A) Placental abruption — avoid amniocentesis
- B) Placenta praevia — avoid digital vaginal examination
- C) Vasa praevia — avoid artificial rupture of membranes
- D) Cervical polyp — avoid speculum examination
- E) Placenta praevia — avoid ultrasound examination
Question 7
A 28-year-old woman at 32 weeks gestation is brought in by ambulance after a road traffic accident. She complains of severe, constant abdominal pain. On examination: uterus is woody hard and extremely tender, fetal heart rate shows prolonged decelerations on CTG. Vaginal bleeding is noted but seems less than expected for the degree of clinical deterioration. BP is 88/56 mmHg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Placenta praevia with major haemorrhage
- B) Uterine rupture
- C) Placental abruption with concealed haemorrhage
- D) Vasa praevia with fetal haemorrhage
- E) Preterm labour with cervical laceration
Question 8
A 35-year-old woman (G3P2, both previous deliveries by caesarean section) presents at 28 weeks gestation with painless vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound confirms anterior placenta praevia covering the internal os. MRI shows placental tissue invading through the myometrium and reaching the uterine serosa.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the most important complication this patient is at risk of at delivery?
- A) Placenta accreta — uterine atony at delivery
- B) Placenta increta — uterine perforation
- C) Placenta percreta — massive haemorrhage requiring hysterectomy
- D) Placenta praevia only — cord prolapse
- E) Placenta accreta — disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) only
Question 9
A 22-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks presents with sudden onset of painless, profuse bright red bleeding at home. She arrives haemodynamically stable. Cardiotocography is reassuring. Ultrasound in triage shows a low-lying placenta with the edge 1.5 cm from the internal os but not covering it.
Which statement best describes her condition and management?
- A) This is a major placenta praevia — immediate caesarean section is required
- B) This is a minor/low-lying placenta — vaginal delivery may be considered with caution
- C) This is placental abruption — deliver immediately by caesarean section
- D) This is vasa praevia — emergency caesarean section is required
- E) This is a cervical ectropion — no obstetric intervention required
Question 10
A 31-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with APH. Ultrasound shows a retroplacental clot with partial placental separation. The CTG shows a sinusoidal pattern. Maternal BP is 80/50 mmHg. Haematological tests show: platelets 62 × 10⁹/L, fibrinogen 1.1 g/L, PT prolonged, APTT prolonged.
Which complication has most likely developed?
- A) HELLP syndrome
- B) Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
- C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
- D) von Willebrand disease exacerbation
- E) Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura (TTP)
TWIN PREGNANCY
Question 11
A 27-year-old woman at 13 weeks gestation is found to have a twin pregnancy on ultrasound. The scan shows two separate placentae (one anterior, one posterior), a thick inter-twin membrane, and a lambda (twin-peak) sign at the membrane–placenta junction.
What is the chorionicity and zygosity of this pregnancy?
- A) Monochorionic diamniotic — always monozygotic
- B) Dichorionic diamniotic — always dizygotic
- C) Dichorionic diamniotic — may be dizygotic or monozygotic
- D) Monochorionic monoamniotic — always monozygotic
- E) Dichorionic monoamniotic — may be dizygotic or monozygotic
Question 12
A 30-year-old woman with a known monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy at 22 weeks gestation is found on ultrasound to have:
- Twin A: deepest vertical pocket (DVP) 10 cm, bladder visible, tricuspid regurgitation on cardiac Doppler
- Twin B: DVP 1.8 cm, bladder not visible on repeat scan, absent end-diastolic flow in umbilical artery
What is the Quintero stage and the treatment of choice?
- A) Quintero Stage I — conservative management with fortnightly scans
- B) Quintero Stage II — amnioreduction of Twin A's sac
- C) Quintero Stage III — selective laser photocoagulation of communicating placental vessels
- D) Quintero Stage IV — emergency caesarean section
- E) Quintero Stage III — selective feticide of Twin B
Question 13
A 24-year-old woman with a monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twin pregnancy at 28 weeks is admitted for inpatient monitoring. Ultrasound confirms cord entanglement. Both twins are appropriately grown with normal Doppler studies.
Which of the following management plans is most appropriate?
- A) Immediate delivery by caesarean section at 28 weeks
- B) Outpatient surveillance with weekly ultrasound scans
- C) Inpatient monitoring with continuous CTG, planned delivery at 32–34 weeks
- D) Laser cord coagulation of one cord to prevent further entanglement
- E) Amnioinfusion to separate the cords
Question 14
A 36-year-old woman with a dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twin pregnancy at 38 weeks is in active labour. Twin A delivers vaginally without complications, in the cephalic presentation. Examination after delivery of Twin A reveals Twin B is in a transverse lie. The cervix remains fully dilated. Both twins have been appropriately grown throughout pregnancy.
What is the most appropriate management of Twin B?
- A) Immediate emergency caesarean section for Twin B
- B) Await spontaneous conversion to longitudinal lie for up to 2 hours
- C) Perform external cephalic version (ECV), and if unsuccessful, caesarean section
- D) Internal podalic version (IPV) followed by breech extraction
- E) Administer tocolysis and reassess in 30 minutes
Question 15
A 29-year-old woman undergoes IVF and at 10 weeks gestation is confirmed to have a dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twin pregnancy. CVS at 13 weeks confirms that Twin A has trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome); Twin B is chromosomally normal. The couple wishes to continue the pregnancy with the unaffected twin only.
What is the most appropriate method of selective fetal reduction?
- A) Intracardiac potassium chloride (KCl) injection into Twin A
- B) Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) of Twin A's umbilical cord
- C) Amniodrainage from Twin A's sac to reduce its growth
- D) Expectant management — trisomy 18 fetuses almost always spontaneously demise
- E) KCl injection is contraindicated; use bipolar cord coagulation instead
Explanations
Q1 — Ergometrine + uterine massage after failed oxytocin in uterine atony
The clinical picture is classic uterine atony — the most common cause of PPH, accounting for ~70–80% of cases. The uterus is soft and non-contracted despite oxytocin. The next step in the uterotonic ladder is ergometrine 0.5 mg IM, combined with sustained uterine massage to stimulate myometrial contraction. Option D (carboprost) comes after ergometrine has also failed. Hysterectomy (B) is only appropriate when all conservative and surgical haemostatic measures are exhausted. Bakri balloon (C) is appropriate for persistent atony after uterotonics. Examination under anaesthesia (E) is indicated if retained tissue is suspected, but the uterus is described as non-contracted without mention of retained tissue as the cause.
Q2 — Carboprost is absolutely contraindicated in asthma
Carboprost (15-methyl PGF2α) is a prostaglandin F2α analogue that causes powerful uterine contraction. PGF2α causes potent bronchospasm via smooth muscle constriction of bronchial airways, making it absolutely contraindicated in asthmatic patients — even a single dose can precipitate life-threatening status asthmaticus. Misoprostol (A) is a PGE1 analogue and is safe in asthma. Oxytocin infusion (C) and tranexamic acid (D) are safe. Dinoprostone (E) is a PGE2 analogue and is generally safe in asthma. In asthmatic patients with refractory atonic PPH after oxytocin and ergometrine, misoprostol is the preferred third-line agent.
Q3 — Retained placenta requires MROP at 30 minutes
The active management of the third stage of labour includes oxytocin, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage. If the placenta is not delivered within 30 minutes of birth (with active management), it is defined as a retained placenta requiring manual removal of placenta (MROP) under regional or general anaesthesia in theatre. At 35 minutes, the threshold has been crossed. Repeating oxytocin and waiting longer (A, E) risks haemorrhage from partial separation. The Credé manoeuvre (B) risks uterine inversion and is not recommended. Bimanual compression (D) compresses the uterus but cannot deliver an unseparated placenta.
Q4 — Peripartum hysterectomy as definitive management
This is intractable PPH — haemorrhage that is haemodynamically life-threatening and refractory to all medical and surgical haemostatic measures including uterotonics, balloon tamponade, and vascular ligation. Peripartum hysterectomy is the definitive, life-saving procedure and must not be delayed when the patient is in haemodynamic collapse. Uterine artery embolisation (D) requires haemodynamic stability and transfer to interventional radiology, which is not appropriate in active uncontrolled haemorrhage. Gauze packing (E) and repeat B-Lynch (A) are temporising, not definitive. Bilateral internal iliac ligation (B) has a 40–50% failure rate and is time-consuming; it is appropriate earlier in the algorithm but not as the final step in a deteriorating patient.
Q5 — Type 1 VWD: tranexamic acid + DDAVP
The bleeding is coagulopathic in origin — the uterus is well-contracted and no trauma is identified, pointing to the "Thrombin" T of PPH. In Type 1 VWD (the most common type, accounting for ~70–80% of cases), the vWF level is quantitatively reduced. Desmopressin (DDAVP) stimulates release of endogenous vWF and Factor VIII from endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies, raising levels 3–5 fold within 30–60 minutes — it is the treatment of choice. Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic that prevents clot breakdown and reduces secondary PPH risk. FFP (A) provides multiple clotting factors but is not targeted therapy for VWD. Factor VIII concentrate alone (D) does not address vWF deficiency adequately in Type 1. Uterotonics (E) are not indicated when the uterus is well-contracted.
Q6 — Placenta praevia: never perform digital vaginal examination
The triad of painless, bright red, unprovoked antepartum haemorrhage with a soft, non-tender uterus and ultrasound-confirmed placenta covering the internal os is the classic presentation of placenta praevia. The most critical rule in its management is that digital vaginal examination is absolutely contraindicated — the examining finger can penetrate the placenta and precipitate catastrophic haemorrhage from the placental sinuses. Speculum examination in a well-equipped hospital setting (to exclude local causes) is acceptable with caution. Ultrasound (E) is not only safe but is the investigation of choice. Amniocentesis avoidance (A) relates to abruption. Vasa praevia (C) presents with bleeding on membrane rupture and sinusoidal/bradycardic fetal heart.
Q7 — Placental abruption with concealed haemorrhage
The hallmark features here are: severe constant abdominal pain (not colicky), board-like woody-hard uterus, fetal distress, haemodynamic instability disproportionate to visible blood loss, and a traumatic trigger (RTA). This is placental abruption with concealed haemorrhage — blood tracks behind the placenta and into the myometrium (Couvelaire uterus) without escaping per vaginum. This is far more dangerous than revealed abruption as blood loss is underestimated. Placenta praevia (A) presents with painless bleeding and a soft uterus. Uterine rupture (B) is also possible post-trauma but classically shows a palpable fetal parts outside the uterus, cessation of contractions, and a different pain pattern. Vasa praevia (D) causes fetal bleeding (not maternal shock). Cervical laceration (E) does not cause a woody-hard uterus.
Q8 — Placenta percreta: invasion through serosa, risk of hysterectomy
The MRI finding of placental tissue penetrating through the full myometrium and reaching the uterine serosa (and potentially involving adjacent organs such as the bladder) defines placenta percreta — the most severe form of the placenta accreta spectrum (PAS). It carries the highest risk of massive intraoperative haemorrhage, inadvertent cystotomy, and the need for caesarean hysterectomy. Risk factors in this patient are two previous caesarean sections and anterior placenta praevia. Accreta (A) invades only the superficial myometrium; increta (B) invades into (but not through) the myometrium. DIC (E) is a complication, not the primary risk. Pre-planned multidisciplinary management (urology, vascular surgery, haematology, cell salvage) is essential.
Q9 — Low-lying placenta: vaginal delivery may be considered
A placenta with its lower edge within 2 cm of the internal os but not covering it is termed a low-lying placenta (minor/type I praevia in older classifications). This is distinct from a placenta praevia (which covers the os). Current RCOG guidance states that if the placental edge is >2 cm from the os, vaginal delivery is generally safe; if between 0–2 cm, vaginal delivery may be attempted with caution in a well-resourced setting with immediate theatre access, as many such women deliver vaginally without complication. The placental edge at 1.5 cm does not mandate caesarean section. Options A (major praevia) and C (abruption) are incorrect — the presentation is painless with a soft uterus and ultrasound confirms position. Vasa praevia (D) is not suggested by the ultrasound findings.
Q10 — Placental abruption complicated by DIC
The combination of partial placental abruption + retroplacental clot + sinusoidal CTG + haemodynamic collapse + thrombocytopaenia + low fibrinogen + prolonged PT and APTT is the classic picture of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) complicating severe placental abruption. Placental abruption is one of the most common obstetric triggers of DIC — thromboplastin released from the retroplacental decidua activates the coagulation cascade systemically, consuming clotting factors and platelets. Fibrinogen <1.5 g/L in the context of PPH/APH is a particularly ominous sign requiring urgent cryoprecipitate. HELLP (A) has elevated liver enzymes + hypertension. ITP (B) has isolated thrombocytopaenia without coagulopathy. TTP (E) has microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia + neurological features. VWD (D) does not cause acute consumptive coagulopathy.
Q11 — DCDA may be dizygotic or monozygotic
The lambda sign (twin-peak sign) is formed by chorionic villi growing into the base of the inter-twin membrane, creating a triangular echogenic wedge at the membrane–placenta junction. It is the ultrasound hallmark of dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins. Crucially, while all dizygotic (fraternal) twins are DCDA, not all DCDA twins are dizygotic — approximately 20–30% of monozygotic twins also split early enough (within the first 3 days post-fertilisation) to form dichorionic placentae. Therefore, DCDA twins may be either dizygotic or monozygotic — chorionicity and zygosity are not synonymous. MCDA and MCMA twins are always monozygotic. The lambda sign differentiates DCDA from MCDA (T-sign) and must be determined at 11–14 weeks when it is most reliable.
Q12 — TTTS Quintero Stage III: laser photocoagulation
The Quintero staging system classifies TTTS severity:
- Stage I: DVP discordance only (≥8 cm recipient, ≤2 cm donor); both bladders visible
- Stage II: Donor bladder not visible
- Stage III: Abnormal Doppler (absent/reversed end-diastolic flow in donor UA, or abnormal ductus venosus/umbilical venous flow)
- Stage IV: Hydrops in either twin
- Stage V: Death of one or both twins
This patient has Stage III (non-visible bladder + absent EDF in donor UA). TTTS affects 10–15% of MCDA pregnancies via unidirectional arteriovenous placental anastomoses. Selective laser photocoagulation of communicating placental vessels (SLPCV) is the treatment of choice for Stage II–IV TTTS before 26–28 weeks, reducing mortality and cardiovascular morbidity. Amnioreduction is an inferior temporising measure. Feticide of Twin B is not indicated — the goal is to save both twins.
Q13 — MCMA: inpatient monitoring, deliver at 32–34 weeks
Monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twins share a single amniotic sac, making cord entanglement nearly universal (detected in up to 70–100% of cases). Cord entanglement can cause sudden cord occlusion and acute fetal death at any time, particularly during active fetal movement. The standard of care is:
- Inpatient admission from 26–28 weeks for intensive CTG monitoring
- Planned elective caesarean section at 32–34 weeks before spontaneous labour (which increases cord tension dynamics and the risk of acute occlusion)
Immediate delivery at 28 weeks (A) is premature given normal Doppler studies. Outpatient management (B) is unsafe given the unpredictable risk of sudden fetal death from cord occlusion. Laser cord coagulation (D) would kill one twin and is reserved for selective feticide, not entanglement. Amnioinfusion (E) cannot separate entangled cords.
Q14 — Transverse Twin B: internal podalic version + breech extraction
After vaginal delivery of a cephalic Twin A, the management of a transverse Twin B with a fully dilated cervix in a skilled operator's hands is internal podalic version (IPV) followed by breech extraction. IPV involves the operator inserting a hand into the uterus, grasping the fetal foot, converting the lie to a footling breech, and delivering by traction — a well-established technique in experienced obstetric practice. Immediate caesarean (A) is not required if the cervix is fully dilated and the operator is skilled. Awaiting spontaneous conversion for 2 hours (B) risks cord prolapse, placental separation, and fetal compromise — the inter-delivery interval should be <30 minutes. ECV alone (C) after Twin A delivery is less reliable and more likely to cause cord prolapse in a transverse lie. Tocolysis (E) prolongs the inter-delivery interval unnecessarily.
Q15 — DCDA: KCl injection safe for selective reduction
In dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins, the two fetuses have entirely separate placental circulations with no vascular anastomoses between them. This makes intracardiac or intrafunicular potassium chloride (KCl) injection into the affected twin safe — the drug cannot cross to the co-twin. This is the standard method of selective fetal reduction in DCDA pregnancies with a confirmed abnormal fetus. By contrast, in monochorionic twins (MCDA or MCMA), the shared placental circulation means KCl would immediately pass to the healthy co-twin and cause its death — hence KCl is absolutely contraindicated in monochorionic twins, and cord occlusion techniques (radiofrequency ablation or bipolar diathermy) must be used instead. Option D (expectant management) is inappropriate — trisomy 18 fetuses do not reliably demise spontaneously, and delaying increases procedural risk.
Based on Williams Obstetrics (25th ed.), DC Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics (9th ed.), RCOG Green-top Guidelines (PPH No. 52, APH No. 63, Twin Pregnancy No. 51), WHO PPH Guidelines, and ESC/BHIVA guidelines.