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Neet human physiology all types of questions 200 question

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Got it — digestion/GI physiology is excluded. I'll now generate 200 comprehensive NEET Human Physiology questions (Mix of MCQs, True/False, and Assertion-Reason) covering all remaining topics.
Here are your 200 NEET Human Physiology Questions (Digestion excluded):

🧬 NEET HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY — 200 Questions

Topics: Nerve & Muscle | Blood | Cardiovascular | Respiratory | Renal | Endocrine | Reproductive | Special Senses | Locomotion

📘 SECTION A — MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)

(Single Best Answer)

🔴 NERVE & MUSCLE PHYSIOLOGY (Q1–Q30)

Q1. Resting membrane potential of a nerve fiber is approximately:
  • A) +70 mV
  • B) −70 mV ✅
  • C) −90 mV
  • D) +55 mV
Q2. The ion responsible for the rising phase (depolarization) of an action potential is:
  • A) K⁺ outflow
  • B) Na⁺ inflow ✅
  • C) Ca²⁺ inflow
  • D) Cl⁻ outflow
Q3. Repolarization of a nerve membrane during action potential is due to:
  • A) Na⁺ inflow
  • B) K⁺ outflow ✅
  • C) Cl⁻ inflow
  • D) Ca²⁺ outflow
Q4. The refractory period during which NO stimulus can generate another action potential is called:
  • A) Relative refractory period
  • B) Absolute refractory period ✅
  • C) Supernormal period
  • D) Subnormal period
Q5. Saltatory conduction occurs in:
  • A) Unmyelinated fibers
  • B) Myelinated fibers ✅
  • C) Smooth muscle fibers
  • D) Cardiac muscle fibers
Q6. The fastest conducting nerve fibers are:
  • A) A-delta fibers
  • B) C fibers
  • C) A-alpha fibers ✅
  • D) B fibers
Q7. Neuromuscular junction transmitter is:
  • A) Norepinephrine
  • B) Dopamine
  • C) Acetylcholine ✅
  • D) GABA
Q8. The site of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction is:
  • A) Presynaptic membrane
  • B) Motor end plate (postsynaptic) ✅
  • C) Axon terminal
  • D) Schwann cell
Q9. Curare causes muscle paralysis by:
  • A) Blocking ACh release
  • B) Blocking nicotinic receptors at NMJ ✅
  • C) Blocking muscarinic receptors
  • D) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
Q10. Organophosphate compounds cause toxicity by:
  • A) Blocking ACh synthesis
  • B) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase ✅
  • C) Blocking Na⁺ channels
  • D) Stimulating GABA receptors
Q11. The functional unit of skeletal muscle is:
  • A) Myofibril
  • B) Sarcomere ✅
  • C) Fascicle
  • D) Motor unit
Q12. During muscle contraction, which band does NOT change its length?
  • A) I band
  • B) H band
  • C) A band ✅
  • D) Z disc distance
Q13. Calcium ions bind to which protein to initiate muscle contraction?
  • A) Actin
  • B) Myosin
  • C) Tropomyosin
  • D) Troponin C ✅
Q14. ATP is required in muscle contraction for:
  • A) Ca²⁺ release only
  • B) Cross-bridge detachment ✅
  • C) Troponin binding
  • D) Sarcomere elongation
Q15. Rigor mortis occurs because:
  • A) Excess Ca²⁺ is released
  • B) ATP is depleted, cross-bridges cannot detach ✅
  • C) Myosin is degraded
  • D) Actin polymerization is blocked
Q16. A motor unit consists of:
  • A) One neuron and one muscle fiber
  • B) One motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates ✅
  • C) A group of motor neurons
  • D) One sarcomere
Q17. Slow-twitch (Type I) muscle fibers are characterized by:
  • A) High glycolytic capacity, fatigue quickly
  • B) High oxidative capacity, fatigue-resistant ✅
  • C) Large diameter, low myoglobin
  • D) Few mitochondria
Q18. The neurotransmitter at sympathetic ganglia is:
  • A) Norepinephrine
  • B) Acetylcholine ✅
  • C) Epinephrine
  • D) Dopamine
Q19. Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is caused by:
  • A) K⁺ outflow
  • B) Cl⁻ inflow
  • C) Na⁺ inflow ✅
  • D) Ca²⁺ outflow
Q20. Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
  • A) Glutamate
  • B) Aspartate
  • C) GABA ✅
  • D) Acetylcholine
Q21. Spatial summation in neurons refers to:
  • A) Repeated stimuli from one synapse
  • B) Simultaneous stimuli from multiple synapses ✅
  • C) Temporal overlap of single synaptic inputs
  • D) Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials only
Q22. Tetanus (sustained maximal contraction) occurs due to:
  • A) Single twitch summation
  • B) Repetitive stimulation at high frequency ✅
  • C) Rigor mortis mechanism
  • D) Excess troponin binding
Q23. Conduction velocity is INCREASED by:
  • A) Decreased axon diameter
  • B) Increased myelination ✅
  • C) Lower temperature
  • D) Increased Cl⁻ permeability
Q24. All-or-none law applies to:
  • A) Graded potentials
  • B) Action potentials ✅
  • C) EPSP
  • D) IPSP
Q25. The stretch reflex (myotatic reflex) is mediated by:
  • A) Golgi tendon organ
  • B) Free nerve endings
  • C) Muscle spindle ✅
  • D) Pacinian corpuscle
Q26. Golgi tendon organ responds to:
  • A) Muscle stretch
  • B) Muscle tension/contraction ✅
  • C) Temperature change
  • D) Pain
Q27. During hyperkalemia, resting membrane potential:
  • A) Becomes more negative (hyperpolarized)
  • B) Becomes less negative (depolarized) ✅
  • C) Remains unchanged
  • D) Rises to +70 mV
Q28. The H zone of sarcomere represents:
  • A) Overlapping actin and myosin
  • B) Actin alone
  • C) Myosin alone ✅
  • D) Z discs
Q29. Sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle stores:
  • A) ATP
  • B) Glycogen
  • C) Ca²⁺ ✅
  • D) Myoglobin
Q30. T-tubules in muscle fibers function to:
  • A) Store calcium
  • B) Transmit action potential deep into the fiber ✅
  • C) Produce ATP
  • D) Connect sarcomeres

🔴 BLOOD PHYSIOLOGY (Q31–Q55)

Q31. Normal blood volume in a 70 kg adult is approximately:
  • A) 3 liters
  • B) 5 liters ✅
  • C) 7 liters
  • D) 10 liters
Q32. Normal hematocrit (PCV) in males is:
  • A) 25–30%
  • B) 36–40%
  • C) 40–45% ✅
  • D) 50–55%
Q33. Erythropoiesis in adults primarily occurs in:
  • A) Liver
  • B) Spleen
  • C) Red bone marrow ✅
  • D) Lymph nodes
Q34. Erythropoietin is primarily produced by:
  • A) Liver
  • B) Kidney ✅
  • C) Spleen
  • D) Bone marrow
Q35. Normal lifespan of RBC is:
  • A) 30 days
  • B) 60 days
  • C) 90 days
  • D) 120 days ✅
Q36. Hemoglobin in normal adult males is approximately:
  • A) 10–11 g/dL
  • B) 12–13 g/dL
  • C) 14–16 g/dL ✅
  • D) 18–20 g/dL
Q37. Iron is absorbed in which form from the intestine?
  • A) Fe³⁺ (ferric)
  • B) Fe²⁺ (ferrous) ✅
  • C) Fe⁰ (elemental)
  • D) Iron-transferrin complex
Q38. Carbonic anhydrase in RBCs is responsible for:
  • A) O₂ binding to hemoglobin
  • B) Conversion of CO₂ to bicarbonate ✅
  • C) Iron absorption
  • D) Erythropoiesis stimulation
Q39. 2,3-BPG (bisphosphoglycerate) causes:
  • A) Left shift of O₂-Hb dissociation curve
  • B) Right shift of O₂-Hb dissociation curve ✅
  • C) No effect on the curve
  • D) Increased affinity of Hb for O₂
Q40. Bohr effect describes the effect of _______ on O₂-Hb dissociation curve:
  • A) Temperature
  • B) CO₂/H⁺ (pH) ✅
  • C) 2,3-BPG
  • D) Carbon monoxide
Q41. Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) has higher affinity for O₂ because it has:
  • A) More alpha chains
  • B) Gamma chains instead of beta chains ✅
  • C) Delta chains
  • D) Zeta chains
Q42. Normal WBC count is:
  • A) 1,000–3,000/mm³
  • B) 4,000–11,000/mm³ ✅
  • C) 15,000–20,000/mm³
  • D) 25,000–30,000/mm³
Q43. The most abundant WBC in peripheral blood is:
  • A) Lymphocyte
  • B) Monocyte
  • C) Neutrophil ✅
  • D) Eosinophil
Q44. Eosinophils are increased in:
  • A) Bacterial infections
  • B) Viral infections
  • C) Allergic reactions and parasitic infections ✅
  • D) Fungal infections
Q45. Platelets (thrombocytes) are derived from:
  • A) Lymphoblasts
  • B) Myeloblasts
  • C) Megakaryocytes ✅
  • D) Monoblasts
Q46. Normal platelet count is:
  • A) 50,000–100,000/mm³
  • B) 150,000–400,000/mm³ ✅
  • C) 500,000–800,000/mm³
  • D) 1,000,000/mm³
Q47. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by:
  • A) Tissue thromboplastin (Factor III)
  • B) Factor XII (Hageman factor) ✅
  • C) Factor VII
  • D) Thrombin
Q48. Vitamin K is required for synthesis of clotting factors:
  • A) I, II, III, IV
  • B) II, VII, IX, X ✅
  • C) V, VIII, XI, XII
  • D) VII, VIII, IX, X
Q49. Heparin acts by:
  • A) Blocking thrombin directly
  • B) Activating antithrombin III ✅
  • C) Inhibiting Vitamin K
  • D) Dissolving fibrin
Q50. Warfarin acts by:
  • A) Activating antithrombin III
  • B) Blocking Vitamin K–dependent clotting factors ✅
  • C) Inhibiting platelet aggregation
  • D) Activating plasminogen
Q51. Blood group O individuals have:
  • A) A antigens on RBCs
  • B) B antigens on RBCs
  • C) Both A and B antigens
  • D) No A or B antigens on RBCs ✅
Q52. Universal donor blood group is:
  • A) AB
  • B) A
  • C) B
  • D) O ✅
Q53. Rh factor is an antigen present on:
  • A) WBCs
  • B) Platelets
  • C) RBCs ✅
  • D) Plasma proteins
Q54. Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when:
  • A) Mother is Rh+ and fetus is Rh−
  • B) Mother is Rh− and fetus is Rh+ ✅
  • C) Mother is blood group O and fetus is A
  • D) Both parents are Rh−
Q55. ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is increased in:
  • A) Polycythemia
  • B) Sickle cell anemia
  • C) Inflammatory conditions ✅
  • D) Spherocytosis

🔴 CARDIOVASCULAR PHYSIOLOGY (Q56–Q85)

Q56. Normal resting heart rate in adults is:
  • A) 40–50 bpm
  • B) 60–100 bpm ✅
  • C) 100–120 bpm
  • D) 120–140 bpm
Q57. The pacemaker of the heart is:
  • A) AV node
  • B) Bundle of His
  • C) SA node ✅
  • D) Purkinje fibers
Q58. Intrinsic firing rate of SA node is:
  • A) 20–40 bpm
  • B) 40–60 bpm
  • C) 60–100 bpm ✅
  • D) 100–150 bpm
Q59. The P wave in ECG represents:
  • A) Ventricular depolarization
  • B) Atrial depolarization ✅
  • C) Ventricular repolarization
  • D) Atrial repolarization
Q60. QRS complex in ECG represents:
  • A) Atrial depolarization
  • B) Atrial repolarization
  • C) Ventricular depolarization ✅
  • D) Ventricular repolarization
Q61. The T wave in ECG represents:
  • A) Atrial depolarization
  • B) Ventricular repolarization ✅
  • C) Ventricular depolarization
  • D) AV node conduction
Q62. Cardiac output is calculated as:
  • A) Heart rate × Blood pressure
  • B) Heart rate × Stroke volume ✅
  • C) Stroke volume / Heart rate
  • D) Preload × Afterload
Q63. Normal cardiac output at rest is:
  • A) 2–3 L/min
  • B) 5–6 L/min ✅
  • C) 8–10 L/min
  • D) 12–15 L/min
Q64. Frank-Starling law states:
  • A) Heart rate determines cardiac output
  • B) Cardiac output increases with increased peripheral resistance
  • C) Stroke volume increases with increased ventricular preload ✅
  • D) Blood pressure is inversely proportional to heart rate
Q65. Preload is determined by:
  • A) Arterial resistance
  • B) End-diastolic volume ✅
  • C) Heart rate
  • D) Myocardial contractility
Q66. Afterload refers to:
  • A) Ventricular filling pressure
  • B) Resistance against which the heart pumps ✅
  • C) Cardiac output
  • D) Stroke volume
Q67. Normal stroke volume at rest is approximately:
  • A) 40 mL
  • B) 70 mL ✅
  • C) 100 mL
  • D) 150 mL
Q68. During systole, the mitral valve is:
  • A) Open
  • B) Closed ✅
  • C) Partially open
  • D) Not relevant
Q69. "Lubb" (S1 heart sound) is produced by:
  • A) Opening of aortic and pulmonary valves
  • B) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves ✅
  • C) Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
  • D) Rapid ventricular filling
Q70. "Dubb" (S2 heart sound) is produced by:
  • A) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves
  • B) Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves ✅
  • C) Ventricular contraction
  • D) Atrial contraction
Q71. Normal systolic blood pressure in adults is:
  • A) 80–90 mmHg
  • B) 100–110 mmHg
  • C) 120 mmHg ✅
  • D) 140–150 mmHg
Q72. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated as:
  • A) Systolic BP − Diastolic BP
  • B) (Systolic BP + 2 × Diastolic BP) / 3 ✅
  • C) Systolic BP / 2
  • D) Diastolic BP + Pulse pressure
Q73. Pulse pressure is:
  • A) MAP − Diastolic BP
  • B) Systolic BP − Diastolic BP ✅
  • C) Systolic BP + Diastolic BP
  • D) Diastolic BP × Heart rate
Q74. Baroreceptors are located in:
  • A) Aortic arch and carotid sinus ✅
  • B) Aortic arch only
  • C) Carotid body
  • D) Hypothalamus
Q75. During increased blood pressure, baroreceptors cause:
  • A) Increased heart rate and vasoconstriction
  • B) Decreased heart rate and vasodilation ✅
  • C) Increased renin release
  • D) Increased ADH release
Q76. Which nerve carries signals from carotid sinus baroreceptors?
  • A) Vagus (CN X)
  • B) Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) ✅
  • C) Facial (CN VII)
  • D) Trigeminal (CN V)
Q77. Peripheral resistance is primarily regulated by:
  • A) Large veins
  • B) Arterioles ✅
  • C) Capillaries
  • D) Venules
Q78. Sympathetic stimulation of heart causes:
  • A) Decreased heart rate and contractility
  • B) Increased heart rate and contractility ✅
  • C) Increased heart rate, decreased contractility
  • D) No effect
Q79. Vagal stimulation of heart causes:
  • A) Tachycardia
  • B) Bradycardia ✅
  • C) Increased contractility
  • D) Increased conduction velocity
Q80. Coronary blood flow is greatest during:
  • A) Systole
  • B) Diastole ✅
  • C) Isovolumetric contraction
  • D) Isovolumetric relaxation
Q81. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released when:
  • A) Blood pressure drops
  • B) Atrial pressure/volume increases ✅
  • C) Renin is secreted
  • D) ADH levels rise
Q82. ANP causes:
  • A) Na⁺ retention and vasoconstriction
  • B) Na⁺ excretion and vasodilation ✅
  • C) Aldosterone release
  • D) Increased thirst
Q83. Ejection fraction (EF) is normally:
  • A) 30–40%
  • B) 45–50%
  • C) 55–65% ✅
  • D) 70–80%
Q84. The Fick principle is used to measure:
  • A) Blood pressure
  • B) Cardiac output ✅
  • C) Peripheral resistance
  • D) Lung compliance
Q85. Which of the following increases cardiac output?
  • A) Increased afterload
  • B) Decreased preload
  • C) Increased sympathetic stimulation ✅
  • D) Increased vagal tone

🔴 RESPIRATORY PHYSIOLOGY (Q86–Q110)

Q86. Tidal volume (TV) at rest is approximately:
  • A) 150 mL
  • B) 500 mL ✅
  • C) 1000 mL
  • D) 3500 mL
Q87. Vital capacity (VC) is:
  • A) TV + IRV
  • B) TV + ERV
  • C) TV + IRV + ERV ✅
  • D) Total lung capacity − RV
Q88. Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air:
  • A) Inspired in one normal breath
  • B) Remaining after maximum expiration ✅
  • C) Exchanged during forced breathing
  • D) Present in dead space
Q89. Functional residual capacity (FRC) equals:
  • A) ERV + RV ✅
  • B) IRV + TV
  • C) TV + RV
  • D) VC + RV
Q90. Anatomical dead space is approximately:
  • A) 50 mL
  • B) 150 mL ✅
  • C) 350 mL
  • D) 500 mL
Q91. Surfactant is produced by:
  • A) Type I pneumocytes
  • B) Type II pneumocytes ✅
  • C) Alveolar macrophages
  • D) Clara cells
Q92. Surfactant reduces:
  • A) Alveolar ventilation
  • B) Surface tension in alveoli ✅
  • C) Oxygen diffusion
  • D) Airway resistance
Q93. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction occurs to:
  • A) Increase blood flow to poorly ventilated areas
  • B) Divert blood away from poorly ventilated areas ✅
  • C) Reduce cardiac output
  • D) Increase tidal volume
Q94. The primary stimulus for breathing in normal individuals is:
  • A) Decreased O₂
  • B) Increased CO₂ / decreased pH ✅
  • C) Decreased blood pressure
  • D) Increased temperature
Q95. Central chemoreceptors are located in:
  • A) Carotid body
  • B) Aortic body
  • C) Medulla oblongata ✅
  • D) Pons
Q96. Peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic bodies) respond primarily to:
  • A) Increased CO₂
  • B) Decreased O₂ (hypoxia) ✅
  • C) Decreased pH
  • D) Both A and C
Q97. CO₂ is transported in blood mainly as:
  • A) Dissolved CO₂
  • B) Carbaminohemoglobin
  • C) Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) ✅
  • D) Carbonic acid
Q98. The chloride shift (Hamburger shift) refers to:
  • A) Cl⁻ moving out of RBCs as HCO₃⁻ enters ✅ (HCO₃⁻ exits RBC, Cl⁻ enters)
  • B) Cl⁻ moving into RBCs as HCO₃⁻ enters
  • C) Na⁺ exchanging with Cl⁻
  • D) K⁺ exchanging with Cl⁻
(Answer: HCO₃⁻ exits RBC into plasma; Cl⁻ enters RBC — Cl⁻ shift INTO RBC) ✅ Correct answer: B — Cl⁻ moves INTO RBCs as HCO₃⁻ exits
Q99. Normal arterial PO₂ is:
  • A) 40 mmHg
  • B) 80–100 mmHg ✅
  • C) 45 mmHg
  • D) 150 mmHg
Q100. Normal arterial PCO₂ is:
  • A) 20–25 mmHg
  • B) 35–45 mmHg ✅
  • C) 50–60 mmHg
  • D) 60–70 mmHg
Q101. Hering-Breuer reflex prevents:
  • A) Hypoventilation
  • B) Over-inflation of lungs ✅
  • C) Hypercapnia
  • D) Apnea
Q102. Oxygen is transported in blood mainly as:
  • A) Dissolved O₂
  • B) Oxyhemoglobin ✅
  • C) Carboxyhemoglobin
  • D) Methemoglobin
Q103. CO (carbon monoxide) causes toxicity because it:
  • A) Destroys hemoglobin
  • B) Binds Hb with 200× greater affinity than O₂, causing left shift ✅
  • C) Blocks hemoglobin synthesis
  • D) Causes vasoconstriction
Q104. The apneustic center is located in:
  • A) Medulla
  • B) Midbrain
  • C) Pons ✅
  • D) Cerebellum
Q105. Compliance of lung is defined as:
  • A) Resistance to airflow
  • B) Change in volume per unit change in pressure ✅
  • C) Elastic recoil force
  • D) Surface tension
Q106. Which condition DECREASES lung compliance?
  • A) Emphysema
  • B) Old age
  • C) Pulmonary fibrosis ✅
  • D) Asthma
Q107. Emphysema INCREASES lung compliance because:
  • A) Surfactant increases
  • B) Destruction of elastic tissue ✅
  • C) Increased surface tension
  • D) Increased mucus
Q108. In respiratory acidosis:
  • A) pH > 7.45, PCO₂ < 35 mmHg
  • B) pH < 7.35, PCO₂ > 45 mmHg ✅
  • C) pH < 7.35, HCO₃⁻ < 22 mEq/L
  • D) pH > 7.45, HCO₃⁻ > 26 mEq/L
Q109. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is characterized by:
  • A) Rapid regular breathing
  • B) Waxing and waning tidal volumes with periodic apnea ✅
  • C) Slow deep breathing
  • D) Prolonged expiration
Q110. Normal respiratory rate in adults is:
  • A) 6–8/min
  • B) 12–20/min ✅
  • C) 24–30/min
  • D) 35–40/min

🔴 RENAL PHYSIOLOGY (Q111–Q130)

Q111. GFR (Glomerular filtration rate) is normally:
  • A) 50 mL/min
  • B) 80 mL/min
  • C) 125 mL/min ✅
  • D) 200 mL/min
Q112. Creatinine clearance is used clinically to estimate:
  • A) Renal blood flow
  • B) Tubular secretion
  • C) GFR ✅
  • D) Renal plasma flow
Q113. Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the kidney up to a plasma concentration of approximately:
  • A) 80 mg/dL
  • B) 180 mg/dL ✅
  • C) 250 mg/dL
  • D) 300 mg/dL
Q114. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) acts on:
  • A) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • B) Loop of Henle
  • C) Collecting duct and distal tubule ✅
  • D) Glomerulus
Q115. ADH increases water reabsorption by inserting _______ into tubular cells:
  • A) Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
  • B) Aquaporin-2 channels ✅
  • C) NKCC2 transporters
  • D) ENaC channels
Q116. Aldosterone acts on which part of the nephron?
  • A) Proximal tubule
  • B) Thick ascending limb
  • C) Distal tubule and collecting duct ✅
  • D) Bowman's capsule
Q117. Aldosterone causes:
  • A) Na⁺ excretion and K⁺ retention
  • B) Na⁺ retention and K⁺ excretion ✅
  • C) Water excretion
  • D) H⁺ retention
Q118. Renin is secreted by:
  • A) Glomerular cells
  • B) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells ✅
  • C) Macula densa
  • D) Mesangial cells
Q119. Renin secretion is stimulated by:
  • A) Increased renal artery pressure
  • B) Decreased renal artery pressure ✅
  • C) Hypernatremia
  • D) Increased GFR
Q120. Angiotensin II causes:
  • A) Vasodilation and Na⁺ excretion
  • B) Vasoconstriction and aldosterone release ✅
  • C) Inhibition of ADH
  • D) Decreased blood pressure
Q121. The countercurrent multiplier system is located in:
  • A) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • B) Loop of Henle ✅
  • C) Distal convoluted tubule
  • D) Collecting duct
Q122. The majority of filtered Na⁺ is reabsorbed in the:
  • A) Loop of Henle
  • B) Proximal convoluted tubule ✅
  • C) Distal tubule
  • D) Collecting duct
Q123. PAH (para-aminohippuric acid) clearance measures:
  • A) GFR
  • B) Tubular secretion rate
  • C) Effective renal plasma flow ✅
  • D) Tubular reabsorption
Q124. In the thick ascending limb of Henle, which transporter reabsorbs Na⁺?
  • A) Na⁺/glucose cotransporter
  • B) NKCC2 (Na-K-2Cl) ✅
  • C) ENaC
  • D) NHE3
Q125. Urine concentration is maximal (up to 1200 mOsm/L) when:
  • A) ADH is absent
  • B) ADH is present + functional countercurrent system ✅
  • C) Aldosterone is absent
  • D) GFR is decreased
Q126. Which diuretic acts on the thick ascending limb (inhibits NKCC2)?
  • A) Thiazide
  • B) Spironolactone
  • C) Furosemide (loop diuretic) ✅
  • D) Amiloride
Q127. Potassium is both filtered AND secreted in the:
  • A) Proximal tubule
  • B) Distal tubule and collecting duct ✅
  • C) Loop of Henle
  • D) Bowman's capsule
Q128. Titratable acidity in urine refers to:
  • A) Ammonium excretion
  • B) H⁺ bound to urinary buffers (mainly phosphate) ✅
  • C) HCO₃⁻ excretion
  • D) Cl⁻ excretion
Q129. Inulin is used to measure GFR because it is:
  • A) Completely secreted by tubules
  • B) Freely filtered, not reabsorbed or secreted ✅
  • C) Bound to plasma proteins
  • D) Metabolized in the kidney
Q130. Renal autoregulation maintains GFR constant between MAP of:
  • A) 40–60 mmHg
  • B) 80–180 mmHg ✅
  • C) 60–80 mmHg
  • D) 200–250 mmHg

🔴 ENDOCRINE PHYSIOLOGY (Q131–Q155)

Q131. Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by:
  • A) Posterior pituitary
  • B) Anterior pituitary ✅
  • C) Hypothalamus
  • D) Adrenal cortex
Q132. GH acts via which second messenger?
  • A) cAMP
  • B) IP₃/DAG
  • C) JAK-STAT pathway ✅
  • D) cGMP
Q133. IGF-1 (Insulin-like Growth Factor-1) is mainly produced by:
  • A) Kidney
  • B) Adipose tissue
  • C) Liver ✅
  • D) Bone marrow
Q134. Excess GH before puberty causes:
  • A) Acromegaly
  • B) Gigantism ✅
  • C) Dwarfism
  • D) Cushing syndrome
Q135. TSH stimulates the thyroid to produce:
  • A) T₃ only
  • B) T₄ only
  • C) Both T₃ and T₄ ✅
  • D) Calcitonin
Q136. The most metabolically active thyroid hormone is:
  • A) T₄ (thyroxine)
  • B) T₃ (triiodothyronine) ✅
  • C) Reverse T₃
  • D) TSH
Q137. Thyroid hormones are transported in blood mainly bound to:
  • A) Albumin
  • B) TBG (thyroxine-binding globulin) ✅
  • C) Prealbumin
  • D) Free form
Q138. Calcitonin is secreted by:
  • A) Chief cells of parathyroid
  • B) C cells (parafollicular cells) of thyroid ✅
  • C) Anterior pituitary
  • D) Adrenal cortex
Q139. Calcitonin lowers plasma calcium by:
  • A) Decreasing intestinal calcium absorption
  • B) Inhibiting osteoclast activity ✅
  • C) Decreasing renal calcium reabsorption
  • D) Binding calcium in blood
Q140. PTH (parathyroid hormone) increases plasma calcium by:
  • A) Increasing bone resorption and renal Ca²⁺ reabsorption ✅
  • B) Increasing calcitonin
  • C) Decreasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
  • D) Reducing intestinal calcium absorption
Q141. Insulin is secreted by:
  • A) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
  • B) Beta cells of islets of Langerhans ✅
  • C) Delta cells
  • D) PP cells
Q142. Glucagon is secreted by:
  • A) Beta cells
  • B) Alpha cells ✅
  • C) Delta cells
  • D) Acinar cells
Q143. Insulin promotes:
  • A) Glycogenolysis
  • B) Gluconeogenesis
  • C) Glucose uptake into cells ✅
  • D) Lipolysis
Q144. Cortisol is a _______ steroid produced by:
  • A) Mineralocorticoid; zona glomerulosa
  • B) Glucocorticoid; zona fasciculata ✅
  • C) Androgen; zona reticularis
  • D) Glucocorticoid; adrenal medulla
Q145. Aldosterone is produced in the:
  • A) Zona fasciculata
  • B) Zona reticularis
  • C) Zona glomerulosa ✅
  • D) Adrenal medulla
Q146. Epinephrine is secreted by:
  • A) Adrenal cortex
  • B) Adrenal medulla ✅
  • C) Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
  • D) Hypothalamus
Q147. ADH (vasopressin) is synthesized in the:
  • A) Posterior pituitary
  • B) Anterior pituitary
  • C) Hypothalamus ✅ (supraoptic nucleus)
  • D) Pineal gland
Q148. Oxytocin is released during:
  • A) Stress
  • B) Nipple stimulation and labor ✅
  • C) Hypoglycemia
  • D) Increased osmolality
Q149. Prolactin secretion is tonically inhibited by:
  • A) Estrogen
  • B) Dopamine ✅
  • C) TRH
  • D) GnRH
Q150. Melatonin is secreted by:
  • A) Hypothalamus
  • B) Anterior pituitary
  • C) Pineal gland ✅
  • D) Adrenal medulla
Q151. ACTH stimulates secretion of:
  • A) Aldosterone only
  • B) Cortisol mainly ✅
  • C) Epinephrine
  • D) Thyroid hormone
Q152. The negative feedback in the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis is mediated by:
  • A) ACTH
  • B) CRH
  • C) Cortisol ✅
  • D) Epinephrine
Q153. Insulin resistance is the hallmark of:
  • A) Type 1 DM
  • B) Type 2 DM ✅
  • C) Diabetes insipidus
  • D) Addison disease
Q154. Diabetes insipidus is due to:
  • A) Excess ADH
  • B) ADH deficiency or resistance ✅
  • C) Excess aldosterone
  • D) Insulin deficiency
Q155. SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH) causes:
  • A) Hypernatremia and dehydration
  • B) Hyponatremia and fluid retention ✅
  • C) Polyuria and polydipsia
  • D) Hyperkalemia

📗 SECTION B — TRUE / FALSE QUESTIONS

(Mark T for True, F for False)
Q156. The SA node has the highest rate of spontaneous depolarization in the heart. [T] ✅
Q157. Atrial repolarization is visible as a distinct wave on normal ECG. [F] ✅ (Hidden within QRS)
Q158. Fetal hemoglobin has lower affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin. [F] ✅ (HbF has HIGHER affinity)
Q159. Neutrophils are the first cells to arrive at a site of acute infection. [T] ✅
Q160. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is faster than the extrinsic pathway. [F] ✅ (Extrinsic is faster)
Q161. Surfactant deficiency in premature infants causes Respiratory Distress Syndrome. [T] ✅
Q162. GFR increases with a rise in afferent arteriolar resistance. [F] ✅ (Afferent constriction DECREASES GFR)
Q163. Aldosterone acts via a nuclear receptor to increase ENaC and Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase. [T] ✅
Q164. Growth hormone directly stimulates bone growth without needing IGF-1. [F] ✅ (GH acts mainly via IGF-1)
Q165. T₃ has a shorter half-life but greater potency than T₄. [T] ✅
Q166. Calcitonin is the main regulator of calcium in adult humans. [F] ✅ (PTH is the major regulator)
Q167. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver. [T] ✅
Q168. The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts LEFT in high altitude (chronic). [F] ✅ (Shifts RIGHT due to increased 2,3-BPG)
Q169. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used as diuretics. [T] ✅
Q170. Heparin can be given orally. [F] ✅ (Must be given parenterally; warfarin is oral)
Q171. Type II muscle fibers (fast-twitch) have more mitochondria than Type I. [F] ✅ (Type I oxidative fibers have MORE mitochondria)
Q172. The renal medulla is hyperosmolar compared to the cortex. [T] ✅
Q173. PTH decreases phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule. [T] ✅
Q174. The Bohr effect describes rightward shift of O₂-Hb curve with increased pH. [F] ✅ (Increased pH → Left shift)
Q175. Epinephrine binds both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. [T] ✅

📙 SECTION C — ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

Instructions:
  • A: Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation
  • B: Both true, but Reason is NOT the correct explanation
  • C: Assertion is true, Reason is false
  • D: Assertion is false, Reason is true
  • E: Both false
Q176. Assertion: Myelinated nerve fibers conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated fibers. Reason: In myelinated fibers, action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier to the next (saltatory conduction). Answer: A ✅
Q177. Assertion: Skeletal muscle contraction requires calcium ions. Reason: Calcium binds to tropomyosin directly, causing conformational change. Answer: C ✅ (Calcium binds troponin C, not tropomyosin directly)
Q178. Assertion: Carbon monoxide poisoning leads to tissue hypoxia despite normal PO₂. Reason: CO binds hemoglobin with much higher affinity than O₂ and causes left shift. Answer: A ✅
Q179. Assertion: Patients with emphysema have increased lung compliance. Reason: Emphysema destroys alveolar walls and elastic tissue. Answer: A ✅
Q180. Assertion: ADH deficiency causes production of large volumes of dilute urine. Reason: Without ADH, the collecting duct remains impermeable to water. Answer: A ✅
Q181. Assertion: In metabolic alkalosis, respiratory compensation causes hypoventilation. Reason: Retained CO₂ lowers pH, partially compensating for the alkalosis. Answer: A ✅
Q182. Assertion: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia. Reason: Furosemide inhibits NKCC2 in the thick ascending limb, increasing tubular flow to the distal nephron, promoting K⁺ secretion. Answer: A ✅
Q183. Assertion: Blood group O is the universal donor. Reason: Group O RBCs lack A and B antigens, so won't be agglutinated by anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the recipient. Answer: A ✅
Q184. Assertion: High altitude causes right shift of the O₂-Hb dissociation curve. Reason: Hypoxia increases 2,3-BPG in RBCs, reducing Hb's oxygen affinity. Answer: A ✅
Q185. Assertion: Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver. Reason: Insulin activates glycogen synthase and inhibits glycogen phosphorylase. Answer: A ✅
Q186. Assertion: PTH increases serum calcium and decreases serum phosphate. Reason: PTH stimulates osteoclasts and decreases renal phosphate reabsorption. Answer: A ✅
Q187. Assertion: The Frank-Starling mechanism allows the heart to match output to venous return. Reason: Increased end-diastolic volume stretches myocardial fibers, increasing force of contraction. Answer: A ✅
Q188. Assertion: Vagal stimulation slows the heart rate. Reason: Acetylcholine from vagus increases K⁺ permeability, hyperpolarizing the SA node. Answer: A ✅
Q189. Assertion: Erythropoietin is increased in anemia and at high altitude. Reason: Hypoxia stimulates renal EPO production via HIF-1α. Answer: A ✅
Q190. Assertion: Surfactant prevents alveolar collapse by increasing surface tension. Reason: Increased surface tension keeps alveoli open. Answer: E ✅ (Surfactant REDUCES surface tension; reduced tension prevents collapse)

📕 SECTION D — ADDITIONAL HIGH-YIELD MCQs (Q191–Q200)

Q191. The primary center for regulation of body temperature is:
  • A) Cerebral cortex
  • B) Hypothalamus ✅
  • C) Cerebellum
  • D) Medulla oblongata
Q192. The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of:
  • A) Macula densa + JG cells + mesangial cells ✅
  • B) Podocytes + mesangial cells
  • C) Bowman's capsule + glomerulus
  • D) DCT + collecting duct
Q193. Vitamin D is activated to its most active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) by:
  • A) Liver only
  • B) Kidney (1-alpha hydroxylation) ✅ (Final step)
  • C) Skin
  • D) Intestine
Q194. Normal serum calcium level is:
  • A) 5–7 mg/dL
  • B) 8.5–10.5 mg/dL ✅
  • C) 12–14 mg/dL
  • D) 2–4 mg/dL
Q195. Trousseau's sign and Chvostek's sign indicate:
  • A) Hypercalcemia
  • B) Hypocalcemia ✅
  • C) Hypermagnesemia
  • D) Hypernatremia
Q196. The hormone responsible for "fight or flight" response is:
  • A) Cortisol
  • B) Aldosterone
  • C) Epinephrine ✅
  • D) Glucagon
Q197. Renin acts on _______ to produce angiotensin I:
  • A) Aldosterone
  • B) Angiotensinogen ✅
  • C) Angiotensin II
  • D) ACE
Q198. The refractory period of the cardiac muscle is longer than skeletal muscle to:
  • A) Increase heart rate
  • B) Prevent tetanic contraction of the heart ✅
  • C) Allow more calcium influx
  • D) Reduce oxygen consumption
Q199. Normal serum osmolality is:
  • A) 200–240 mOsm/kg
  • B) 270–290 mOsm/kg ✅
  • C) 300–320 mOsm/kg
  • D) 350–400 mOsm/kg
Q200. Which hormone directly stimulates milk ejection (let-down reflex)?
  • A) Prolactin
  • B) Estrogen
  • C) Oxytocin ✅
  • D) FSH

✅ QUICK ANSWER KEY SUMMARY

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
1B51D101B151B
2B52D102B152C
3B53C103B153B
4B54B104C154B
5B55C105B155B
6C56B106C156T
7C57C107B157F
8B58C108B158F
9B59B109B159T
10B60C110B160F
11B61B111C161T
12C62B112C162F
13D63B113B163T
14B64C114C164F
15B65B115B165T
16B66B116C166F
17B67B117B167T
18B68B118B168F
19C69B119B169T
20C70B120B170F
21B71C121B171F
22B72B122B172T
23B73B123C173T
24B74A124B174F
25C75B125B175T
26B76B126C176A
27B77B127B177C
28C78B128B178A
29C79B129B179A
30B80B130B180A
31B81B131B181A
32C82B132C182A
33C83C133C183A
34B84B134B184A
35D85C135C185A
36C86B136B186A
37B87C137B187A
38B88B138B188A
39B89A139B189A
40B90B140A190E
41B91B141B191B
42B92B142B192A
43C93B143C193B
44C94B144B194B
45C95C145C195B
46B96B146B196C
47B97C147C197B
48B98B148B198B
49B99B149B199B
50B100B150C200C

📌 TOPIC-WISE DISTRIBUTION

TopicQuestions
Nerve & MuscleQ1–Q30, Q156, Q171, Q176–Q177
BloodQ31–Q55, Q157–Q160, Q183, Q189
CardiovascularQ56–Q85, Q186–Q188, Q198
RespiratoryQ86–Q110, Q161, Q168, Q174, Q178–Q181, Q190
RenalQ111–Q130, Q162–Q163, Q169, Q180, Q182, Q192
EndocrineQ131–Q155, Q164–Q167, Q170, Q173, Q175, Q184–Q186, Q191, Q193–Q200
Note: This set covers all major NEET-relevant human physiology topics (digestion excluded) with a mix of MCQs, True/False, and Assertion-Reason questions — aligned with standard sources (Guyton & Hall, Ganong's, Costanzo).

dont give that green tick

Understood — no answer indicators in the questions. Here are the 200 questions again, clean format with answers only in the answer key at the end.

NEET HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY — 200 Questions

(Digestion Excluded | Mix: MCQ + True/False + Assertion-Reason)

SECTION A — MCQs (Single Best Answer)

NERVE & MUSCLE PHYSIOLOGY (Q1–Q30)

Q1. Resting membrane potential of a nerve fiber is approximately:
  • A) +70 mV
  • B) −70 mV
  • C) −90 mV
  • D) +55 mV
Q2. The ion responsible for the rising phase (depolarization) of an action potential is:
  • A) K⁺ outflow
  • B) Na⁺ inflow
  • C) Ca²⁺ inflow
  • D) Cl⁻ outflow
Q3. Repolarization during action potential is due to:
  • A) Na⁺ inflow
  • B) K⁺ outflow
  • C) Cl⁻ inflow
  • D) Ca²⁺ outflow
Q4. The refractory period during which NO stimulus can generate another action potential is:
  • A) Relative refractory period
  • B) Absolute refractory period
  • C) Supernormal period
  • D) Subnormal period
Q5. Saltatory conduction occurs in:
  • A) Unmyelinated fibers
  • B) Myelinated fibers
  • C) Smooth muscle fibers
  • D) Cardiac muscle fibers
Q6. The fastest conducting nerve fibers are:
  • A) A-delta fibers
  • B) C fibers
  • C) A-alpha fibers
  • D) B fibers
Q7. Neuromuscular junction transmitter is:
  • A) Norepinephrine
  • B) Dopamine
  • C) Acetylcholine
  • D) GABA
Q8. The site of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction is:
  • A) Presynaptic membrane
  • B) Motor end plate (postsynaptic)
  • C) Axon terminal
  • D) Schwann cell
Q9. Curare causes muscle paralysis by:
  • A) Blocking ACh release
  • B) Blocking nicotinic receptors at NMJ
  • C) Blocking muscarinic receptors
  • D) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
Q10. Organophosphate compounds cause toxicity by:
  • A) Blocking ACh synthesis
  • B) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
  • C) Blocking Na⁺ channels
  • D) Stimulating GABA receptors
Q11. The functional unit of skeletal muscle is:
  • A) Myofibril
  • B) Sarcomere
  • C) Fascicle
  • D) Motor unit
Q12. During muscle contraction, which band does NOT change its length?
  • A) I band
  • B) H band
  • C) A band
  • D) Z disc distance
Q13. Calcium ions bind to which protein to initiate muscle contraction?
  • A) Actin
  • B) Myosin
  • C) Tropomyosin
  • D) Troponin C
Q14. ATP is required in muscle contraction for:
  • A) Ca²⁺ release only
  • B) Cross-bridge detachment
  • C) Troponin binding
  • D) Sarcomere elongation
Q15. Rigor mortis occurs because:
  • A) Excess Ca²⁺ is released
  • B) ATP is depleted, cross-bridges cannot detach
  • C) Myosin is degraded
  • D) Actin polymerization is blocked
Q16. A motor unit consists of:
  • A) One neuron and one muscle fiber
  • B) One motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates
  • C) A group of motor neurons
  • D) One sarcomere
Q17. Slow-twitch (Type I) muscle fibers are characterized by:
  • A) High glycolytic capacity, fatigue quickly
  • B) High oxidative capacity, fatigue-resistant
  • C) Large diameter, low myoglobin
  • D) Few mitochondria
Q18. The neurotransmitter at sympathetic ganglia is:
  • A) Norepinephrine
  • B) Acetylcholine
  • C) Epinephrine
  • D) Dopamine
Q19. Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is caused by:
  • A) K⁺ outflow
  • B) Cl⁻ inflow
  • C) Na⁺ inflow
  • D) Ca²⁺ outflow
Q20. Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
  • A) Glutamate
  • B) Aspartate
  • C) GABA
  • D) Acetylcholine
Q21. Spatial summation in neurons refers to:
  • A) Repeated stimuli from one synapse
  • B) Simultaneous stimuli from multiple synapses
  • C) Temporal overlap of single synaptic inputs
  • D) Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials only
Q22. Tetanus (sustained maximal contraction) occurs due to:
  • A) Single twitch summation
  • B) Repetitive stimulation at high frequency
  • C) Rigor mortis mechanism
  • D) Excess troponin binding
Q23. Conduction velocity is INCREASED by:
  • A) Decreased axon diameter
  • B) Increased myelination
  • C) Lower temperature
  • D) Increased Cl⁻ permeability
Q24. All-or-none law applies to:
  • A) Graded potentials
  • B) Action potentials
  • C) EPSP
  • D) IPSP
Q25. The stretch reflex (myotatic reflex) is mediated by:
  • A) Golgi tendon organ
  • B) Free nerve endings
  • C) Muscle spindle
  • D) Pacinian corpuscle
Q26. Golgi tendon organ responds to:
  • A) Muscle stretch
  • B) Muscle tension/contraction
  • C) Temperature change
  • D) Pain
Q27. During hyperkalemia, resting membrane potential:
  • A) Becomes more negative (hyperpolarized)
  • B) Becomes less negative (depolarized)
  • C) Remains unchanged
  • D) Rises to +70 mV
Q28. The H zone of the sarcomere represents:
  • A) Overlapping actin and myosin
  • B) Actin alone
  • C) Myosin alone
  • D) Z discs
Q29. Sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle stores:
  • A) ATP
  • B) Glycogen
  • C) Ca²⁺
  • D) Myoglobin
Q30. T-tubules in muscle fibers function to:
  • A) Store calcium
  • B) Transmit action potential deep into the fiber
  • C) Produce ATP
  • D) Connect sarcomeres

BLOOD PHYSIOLOGY (Q31–Q55)

Q31. Normal blood volume in a 70 kg adult is approximately:
  • A) 3 liters
  • B) 5 liters
  • C) 7 liters
  • D) 10 liters
Q32. Normal hematocrit (PCV) in males is:
  • A) 25–30%
  • B) 36–40%
  • C) 40–45%
  • D) 50–55%
Q33. Erythropoiesis in adults primarily occurs in:
  • A) Liver
  • B) Spleen
  • C) Red bone marrow
  • D) Lymph nodes
Q34. Erythropoietin is primarily produced by:
  • A) Liver
  • B) Kidney
  • C) Spleen
  • D) Bone marrow
Q35. Normal lifespan of RBC is:
  • A) 30 days
  • B) 60 days
  • C) 90 days
  • D) 120 days
Q36. Hemoglobin in normal adult males is approximately:
  • A) 10–11 g/dL
  • B) 12–13 g/dL
  • C) 14–16 g/dL
  • D) 18–20 g/dL
Q37. Iron is absorbed from the intestine in which form?
  • A) Fe³⁺ (ferric)
  • B) Fe²⁺ (ferrous)
  • C) Fe⁰ (elemental)
  • D) Iron-transferrin complex
Q38. Carbonic anhydrase in RBCs is responsible for:
  • A) O₂ binding to hemoglobin
  • B) Conversion of CO₂ to bicarbonate
  • C) Iron absorption
  • D) Erythropoiesis stimulation
Q39. 2,3-BPG causes:
  • A) Left shift of O₂-Hb dissociation curve
  • B) Right shift of O₂-Hb dissociation curve
  • C) No effect on the curve
  • D) Increased affinity of Hb for O₂
Q40. Bohr effect describes the effect of _______ on O₂-Hb dissociation curve:
  • A) Temperature
  • B) CO₂/H⁺ (pH)
  • C) 2,3-BPG
  • D) Carbon monoxide
Q41. Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) has higher affinity for O₂ because it has:
  • A) More alpha chains
  • B) Gamma chains instead of beta chains
  • C) Delta chains
  • D) Zeta chains
Q42. Normal WBC count is:
  • A) 1,000–3,000/mm³
  • B) 4,000–11,000/mm³
  • C) 15,000–20,000/mm³
  • D) 25,000–30,000/mm³
Q43. The most abundant WBC in peripheral blood is:
  • A) Lymphocyte
  • B) Monocyte
  • C) Neutrophil
  • D) Eosinophil
Q44. Eosinophils are increased in:
  • A) Bacterial infections
  • B) Viral infections
  • C) Allergic reactions and parasitic infections
  • D) Fungal infections
Q45. Platelets are derived from:
  • A) Lymphoblasts
  • B) Myeloblasts
  • C) Megakaryocytes
  • D) Monoblasts
Q46. Normal platelet count is:
  • A) 50,000–100,000/mm³
  • B) 150,000–400,000/mm³
  • C) 500,000–800,000/mm³
  • D) 1,000,000/mm³
Q47. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by:
  • A) Tissue thromboplastin (Factor III)
  • B) Factor XII (Hageman factor)
  • C) Factor VII
  • D) Thrombin
Q48. Vitamin K is required for synthesis of clotting factors:
  • A) I, II, III, IV
  • B) II, VII, IX, X
  • C) V, VIII, XI, XII
  • D) VII, VIII, IX, X
Q49. Heparin acts by:
  • A) Blocking thrombin directly
  • B) Activating antithrombin III
  • C) Inhibiting Vitamin K
  • D) Dissolving fibrin
Q50. Warfarin acts by:
  • A) Activating antithrombin III
  • B) Blocking Vitamin K–dependent clotting factors
  • C) Inhibiting platelet aggregation
  • D) Activating plasminogen
Q51. Blood group O individuals have:
  • A) A antigens on RBCs
  • B) B antigens on RBCs
  • C) Both A and B antigens
  • D) No A or B antigens on RBCs
Q52. Universal donor blood group is:
  • A) AB
  • B) A
  • C) B
  • D) O
Q53. Rh factor is an antigen present on:
  • A) WBCs
  • B) Platelets
  • C) RBCs
  • D) Plasma proteins
Q54. Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when:
  • A) Mother is Rh+ and fetus is Rh−
  • B) Mother is Rh− and fetus is Rh+
  • C) Mother is blood group O and fetus is A
  • D) Both parents are Rh−
Q55. ESR is increased in:
  • A) Polycythemia
  • B) Sickle cell anemia
  • C) Inflammatory conditions
  • D) Spherocytosis

CARDIOVASCULAR PHYSIOLOGY (Q56–Q85)

Q56. Normal resting heart rate in adults is:
  • A) 40–50 bpm
  • B) 60–100 bpm
  • C) 100–120 bpm
  • D) 120–140 bpm
Q57. The pacemaker of the heart is:
  • A) AV node
  • B) Bundle of His
  • C) SA node
  • D) Purkinje fibers
Q58. Intrinsic firing rate of SA node is:
  • A) 20–40 bpm
  • B) 40–60 bpm
  • C) 60–100 bpm
  • D) 100–150 bpm
Q59. The P wave in ECG represents:
  • A) Ventricular depolarization
  • B) Atrial depolarization
  • C) Ventricular repolarization
  • D) Atrial repolarization
Q60. QRS complex in ECG represents:
  • A) Atrial depolarization
  • B) Atrial repolarization
  • C) Ventricular depolarization
  • D) Ventricular repolarization
Q61. The T wave in ECG represents:
  • A) Atrial depolarization
  • B) Ventricular repolarization
  • C) Ventricular depolarization
  • D) AV node conduction
Q62. Cardiac output is calculated as:
  • A) Heart rate × Blood pressure
  • B) Heart rate × Stroke volume
  • C) Stroke volume / Heart rate
  • D) Preload × Afterload
Q63. Normal cardiac output at rest is:
  • A) 2–3 L/min
  • B) 5–6 L/min
  • C) 8–10 L/min
  • D) 12–15 L/min
Q64. Frank-Starling law states:
  • A) Heart rate determines cardiac output
  • B) Cardiac output increases with increased peripheral resistance
  • C) Stroke volume increases with increased ventricular preload
  • D) Blood pressure is inversely proportional to heart rate
Q65. Preload is determined by:
  • A) Arterial resistance
  • B) End-diastolic volume
  • C) Heart rate
  • D) Myocardial contractility
Q66. Afterload refers to:
  • A) Ventricular filling pressure
  • B) Resistance against which the heart pumps
  • C) Cardiac output
  • D) Stroke volume
Q67. Normal stroke volume at rest is approximately:
  • A) 40 mL
  • B) 70 mL
  • C) 100 mL
  • D) 150 mL
Q68. During systole, the mitral valve is:
  • A) Open
  • B) Closed
  • C) Partially open
  • D) Independent of systole
Q69. S1 heart sound is produced by:
  • A) Opening of aortic and pulmonary valves
  • B) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves
  • C) Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
  • D) Rapid ventricular filling
Q70. S2 heart sound is produced by:
  • A) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves
  • B) Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
  • C) Ventricular contraction
  • D) Atrial contraction
Q71. Normal systolic blood pressure in adults is:
  • A) 80–90 mmHg
  • B) 100–110 mmHg
  • C) 120 mmHg
  • D) 140–150 mmHg
Q72. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated as:
  • A) Systolic BP − Diastolic BP
  • B) (Systolic BP + 2 × Diastolic BP) / 3
  • C) Systolic BP / 2
  • D) Diastolic BP + Pulse pressure
Q73. Pulse pressure is:
  • A) MAP − Diastolic BP
  • B) Systolic BP − Diastolic BP
  • C) Systolic BP + Diastolic BP
  • D) Diastolic BP × Heart rate
Q74. Baroreceptors are located in:
  • A) Aortic arch and carotid sinus
  • B) Aortic arch only
  • C) Carotid body
  • D) Hypothalamus
Q75. During increased blood pressure, baroreceptors cause:
  • A) Increased heart rate and vasoconstriction
  • B) Decreased heart rate and vasodilation
  • C) Increased renin release
  • D) Increased ADH release
Q76. Which nerve carries signals from carotid sinus baroreceptors?
  • A) Vagus (CN X)
  • B) Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
  • C) Facial (CN VII)
  • D) Trigeminal (CN V)
Q77. Peripheral resistance is primarily regulated by:
  • A) Large veins
  • B) Arterioles
  • C) Capillaries
  • D) Venules
Q78. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes:
  • A) Decreased heart rate and contractility
  • B) Increased heart rate and contractility
  • C) Increased heart rate, decreased contractility
  • D) No effect
Q79. Vagal stimulation of the heart causes:
  • A) Tachycardia
  • B) Bradycardia
  • C) Increased contractility
  • D) Increased conduction velocity
Q80. Coronary blood flow is greatest during:
  • A) Systole
  • B) Diastole
  • C) Isovolumetric contraction
  • D) Isovolumetric relaxation
Q81. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released when:
  • A) Blood pressure drops
  • B) Atrial pressure/volume increases
  • C) Renin is secreted
  • D) ADH levels rise
Q82. ANP causes:
  • A) Na⁺ retention and vasoconstriction
  • B) Na⁺ excretion and vasodilation
  • C) Aldosterone release
  • D) Increased thirst
Q83. Ejection fraction (EF) is normally:
  • A) 30–40%
  • B) 45–50%
  • C) 55–65%
  • D) 70–80%
Q84. The Fick principle is used to measure:
  • A) Blood pressure
  • B) Cardiac output
  • C) Peripheral resistance
  • D) Lung compliance
Q85. Which of the following increases cardiac output?
  • A) Increased afterload
  • B) Decreased preload
  • C) Increased sympathetic stimulation
  • D) Increased vagal tone

RESPIRATORY PHYSIOLOGY (Q86–Q110)

Q86. Tidal volume (TV) at rest is approximately:
  • A) 150 mL
  • B) 500 mL
  • C) 1000 mL
  • D) 3500 mL
Q87. Vital capacity (VC) is:
  • A) TV + IRV
  • B) TV + ERV
  • C) TV + IRV + ERV
  • D) Total lung capacity − RV
Q88. Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air:
  • A) Inspired in one normal breath
  • B) Remaining after maximum expiration
  • C) Exchanged during forced breathing
  • D) Present in dead space
Q89. Functional residual capacity (FRC) equals:
  • A) ERV + RV
  • B) IRV + TV
  • C) TV + RV
  • D) VC + RV
Q90. Anatomical dead space is approximately:
  • A) 50 mL
  • B) 150 mL
  • C) 350 mL
  • D) 500 mL
Q91. Surfactant is produced by:
  • A) Type I pneumocytes
  • B) Type II pneumocytes
  • C) Alveolar macrophages
  • D) Clara cells
Q92. Surfactant reduces:
  • A) Alveolar ventilation
  • B) Surface tension in alveoli
  • C) Oxygen diffusion
  • D) Airway resistance
Q93. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction occurs to:
  • A) Increase blood flow to poorly ventilated areas
  • B) Divert blood away from poorly ventilated areas
  • C) Reduce cardiac output
  • D) Increase tidal volume
Q94. The primary stimulus for breathing in normal individuals is:
  • A) Decreased O₂
  • B) Increased CO₂ / decreased pH
  • C) Decreased blood pressure
  • D) Increased temperature
Q95. Central chemoreceptors are located in:
  • A) Carotid body
  • B) Aortic body
  • C) Medulla oblongata
  • D) Pons
Q96. Peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic bodies) respond primarily to:
  • A) Increased CO₂
  • B) Decreased O₂ (hypoxia)
  • C) Decreased pH
  • D) Increased temperature
Q97. CO₂ is transported in blood mainly as:
  • A) Dissolved CO₂
  • B) Carbaminohemoglobin
  • C) Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)
  • D) Carbonic acid
Q98. In the chloride shift (Hamburger shift), as CO₂ enters RBCs:
  • A) Cl⁻ moves out of RBCs
  • B) Cl⁻ moves into RBCs
  • C) Na⁺ moves into RBCs
  • D) K⁺ moves out of RBCs
Q99. Normal arterial PO₂ is:
  • A) 40 mmHg
  • B) 80–100 mmHg
  • C) 45 mmHg
  • D) 150 mmHg
Q100. Normal arterial PCO₂ is:
  • A) 20–25 mmHg
  • B) 35–45 mmHg
  • C) 50–60 mmHg
  • D) 60–70 mmHg
Q101. Hering-Breuer reflex prevents:
  • A) Hypoventilation
  • B) Over-inflation of lungs
  • C) Hypercapnia
  • D) Apnea
Q102. Oxygen is transported in blood mainly as:
  • A) Dissolved O₂
  • B) Oxyhemoglobin
  • C) Carboxyhemoglobin
  • D) Methemoglobin
Q103. CO (carbon monoxide) causes toxicity because it:
  • A) Destroys hemoglobin
  • B) Binds Hb with ~200× greater affinity than O₂ and causes left shift
  • C) Blocks hemoglobin synthesis
  • D) Causes vasoconstriction
Q104. The apneustic center is located in:
  • A) Medulla
  • B) Midbrain
  • C) Pons
  • D) Cerebellum
Q105. Compliance of lung is defined as:
  • A) Resistance to airflow
  • B) Change in volume per unit change in pressure
  • C) Elastic recoil force
  • D) Surface tension
Q106. Which condition DECREASES lung compliance?
  • A) Emphysema
  • B) Old age
  • C) Pulmonary fibrosis
  • D) Asthma
Q107. Emphysema INCREASES lung compliance because of:
  • A) Increased surfactant
  • B) Destruction of elastic tissue
  • C) Increased surface tension
  • D) Increased mucus production
Q108. In respiratory acidosis:
  • A) pH > 7.45, PCO₂ < 35 mmHg
  • B) pH < 7.35, PCO₂ > 45 mmHg
  • C) pH < 7.35, HCO₃⁻ < 22 mEq/L
  • D) pH > 7.45, HCO₃⁻ > 26 mEq/L
Q109. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is characterized by:
  • A) Rapid regular breathing
  • B) Waxing and waning tidal volumes with periodic apnea
  • C) Slow deep breathing
  • D) Prolonged expiration only
Q110. Normal respiratory rate in adults is:
  • A) 6–8/min
  • B) 12–20/min
  • C) 24–30/min
  • D) 35–40/min

RENAL PHYSIOLOGY (Q111–Q130)

Q111. Normal GFR is:
  • A) 50 mL/min
  • B) 80 mL/min
  • C) 125 mL/min
  • D) 200 mL/min
Q112. Creatinine clearance is used clinically to estimate:
  • A) Renal blood flow
  • B) Tubular secretion
  • C) GFR
  • D) Renal plasma flow
Q113. Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the kidney up to a plasma concentration of approximately:
  • A) 80 mg/dL
  • B) 180 mg/dL
  • C) 250 mg/dL
  • D) 300 mg/dL
Q114. ADH acts on:
  • A) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • B) Loop of Henle
  • C) Collecting duct and distal tubule
  • D) Glomerulus
Q115. ADH increases water reabsorption by inserting _______ into tubular cells:
  • A) Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
  • B) Aquaporin-2 channels
  • C) NKCC2 transporters
  • D) ENaC channels
Q116. Aldosterone acts on which part of the nephron?
  • A) Proximal tubule
  • B) Thick ascending limb
  • C) Distal tubule and collecting duct
  • D) Bowman's capsule
Q117. Aldosterone causes:
  • A) Na⁺ excretion and K⁺ retention
  • B) Na⁺ retention and K⁺ excretion
  • C) Water excretion
  • D) H⁺ retention
Q118. Renin is secreted by:
  • A) Glomerular cells
  • B) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
  • C) Macula densa
  • D) Mesangial cells
Q119. Renin secretion is stimulated by:
  • A) Increased renal artery pressure
  • B) Decreased renal artery pressure
  • C) Hypernatremia
  • D) Increased GFR
Q120. Angiotensin II causes:
  • A) Vasodilation and Na⁺ excretion
  • B) Vasoconstriction and aldosterone release
  • C) Inhibition of ADH
  • D) Decreased blood pressure
Q121. The countercurrent multiplier system is located in:
  • A) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • B) Loop of Henle
  • C) Distal convoluted tubule
  • D) Collecting duct
Q122. The majority of filtered Na⁺ is reabsorbed in the:
  • A) Loop of Henle
  • B) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • C) Distal tubule
  • D) Collecting duct
Q123. PAH clearance measures:
  • A) GFR
  • B) Tubular secretion rate
  • C) Effective renal plasma flow
  • D) Tubular reabsorption
Q124. In the thick ascending limb of Henle, which transporter reabsorbs Na⁺?
  • A) Na⁺/glucose cotransporter
  • B) NKCC2 (Na-K-2Cl)
  • C) ENaC
  • D) NHE3
Q125. Maximum urine concentration (up to 1200 mOsm/L) requires:
  • A) Absence of ADH
  • B) ADH present with a functional countercurrent system
  • C) Absence of aldosterone
  • D) Decreased GFR
Q126. Which diuretic acts on the thick ascending limb (inhibits NKCC2)?
  • A) Thiazide
  • B) Spironolactone
  • C) Furosemide
  • D) Amiloride
Q127. Potassium is both filtered AND secreted in the:
  • A) Proximal tubule
  • B) Distal tubule and collecting duct
  • C) Loop of Henle
  • D) Bowman's capsule
Q128. Titratable acidity in urine refers to:
  • A) Ammonium excretion
  • B) H⁺ bound to urinary buffers (mainly phosphate)
  • C) HCO₃⁻ excretion
  • D) Cl⁻ excretion
Q129. Inulin is used to measure GFR because it is:
  • A) Completely secreted by tubules
  • B) Freely filtered, not reabsorbed or secreted
  • C) Bound to plasma proteins
  • D) Metabolized in the kidney
Q130. Renal autoregulation maintains GFR constant between MAP of:
  • A) 40–60 mmHg
  • B) 80–180 mmHg
  • C) 60–80 mmHg
  • D) 200–250 mmHg

ENDOCRINE PHYSIOLOGY (Q131–Q155)

Q131. Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by:
  • A) Posterior pituitary
  • B) Anterior pituitary
  • C) Hypothalamus
  • D) Adrenal cortex
Q132. GH acts via which signaling pathway?
  • A) cAMP
  • B) IP₃/DAG
  • C) JAK-STAT pathway
  • D) cGMP
Q133. IGF-1 is mainly produced by:
  • A) Kidney
  • B) Adipose tissue
  • C) Liver
  • D) Bone marrow
Q134. Excess GH before puberty causes:
  • A) Acromegaly
  • B) Gigantism
  • C) Dwarfism
  • D) Cushing syndrome
Q135. TSH stimulates the thyroid to produce:
  • A) T₃ only
  • B) T₄ only
  • C) Both T₃ and T₄
  • D) Calcitonin
Q136. The most metabolically active thyroid hormone is:
  • A) T₄ (thyroxine)
  • B) T₃ (triiodothyronine)
  • C) Reverse T₃
  • D) TSH
Q137. Thyroid hormones are transported in blood mainly bound to:
  • A) Albumin
  • B) TBG (thyroxine-binding globulin)
  • C) Prealbumin
  • D) Free form
Q138. Calcitonin is secreted by:
  • A) Chief cells of parathyroid
  • B) C cells (parafollicular cells) of thyroid
  • C) Anterior pituitary
  • D) Adrenal cortex
Q139. Calcitonin lowers plasma calcium by:
  • A) Decreasing intestinal calcium absorption
  • B) Inhibiting osteoclast activity
  • C) Decreasing renal calcium reabsorption
  • D) Binding calcium in blood
Q140. PTH increases plasma calcium by:
  • A) Increasing bone resorption and renal Ca²⁺ reabsorption
  • B) Increasing calcitonin
  • C) Decreasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
  • D) Reducing intestinal calcium absorption
Q141. Insulin is secreted by:
  • A) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
  • B) Beta cells of islets of Langerhans
  • C) Delta cells
  • D) PP cells
Q142. Glucagon is secreted by:
  • A) Beta cells
  • B) Alpha cells
  • C) Delta cells
  • D) Acinar cells
Q143. Insulin promotes:
  • A) Glycogenolysis
  • B) Gluconeogenesis
  • C) Glucose uptake into cells
  • D) Lipolysis
Q144. Cortisol is produced by:
  • A) Zona glomerulosa
  • B) Zona fasciculata
  • C) Zona reticularis
  • D) Adrenal medulla
Q145. Aldosterone is produced in the:
  • A) Zona fasciculata
  • B) Zona reticularis
  • C) Zona glomerulosa
  • D) Adrenal medulla
Q146. Epinephrine is secreted by:
  • A) Adrenal cortex
  • B) Adrenal medulla
  • C) Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
  • D) Hypothalamus
Q147. ADH (vasopressin) is synthesized in the:
  • A) Posterior pituitary
  • B) Anterior pituitary
  • C) Hypothalamus (supraoptic nucleus)
  • D) Pineal gland
Q148. Oxytocin is released during:
  • A) Stress response
  • B) Nipple stimulation and labor
  • C) Hypoglycemia
  • D) Increased plasma osmolality
Q149. Prolactin secretion is tonically inhibited by:
  • A) Estrogen
  • B) Dopamine
  • C) TRH
  • D) GnRH
Q150. Melatonin is secreted by:
  • A) Hypothalamus
  • B) Anterior pituitary
  • C) Pineal gland
  • D) Adrenal medulla
Q151. ACTH stimulates secretion of:
  • A) Aldosterone only
  • B) Cortisol mainly
  • C) Epinephrine
  • D) Thyroid hormone
Q152. Negative feedback in the HPA axis is mediated by:
  • A) ACTH
  • B) CRH
  • C) Cortisol
  • D) Epinephrine
Q153. Insulin resistance is the hallmark of:
  • A) Type 1 DM
  • B) Type 2 DM
  • C) Diabetes insipidus
  • D) Addison disease
Q154. Diabetes insipidus is due to:
  • A) Excess ADH
  • B) ADH deficiency or resistance
  • C) Excess aldosterone
  • D) Insulin deficiency
Q155. SIADH causes:
  • A) Hypernatremia and dehydration
  • B) Hyponatremia and fluid retention
  • C) Polyuria and polydipsia
  • D) Hyperkalemia

SECTION B — TRUE / FALSE

(Write True or False)
Q156. The SA node has the highest rate of spontaneous depolarization in the heart.
Q157. Atrial repolarization is visible as a distinct wave on normal ECG.
Q158. Fetal hemoglobin has lower affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin.
Q159. Neutrophils are the first cells to arrive at a site of acute infection.
Q160. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is faster than the extrinsic pathway.
Q161. Surfactant deficiency in premature infants causes Respiratory Distress Syndrome.
Q162. GFR increases with a rise in afferent arteriolar resistance.
Q163. Aldosterone acts via a nuclear receptor to increase ENaC and Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase expression.
Q164. Growth hormone directly stimulates bone growth without needing IGF-1.
Q165. T₃ has a shorter half-life but greater potency than T₄.
Q166. Calcitonin is the main regulator of calcium in adult humans.
Q167. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver.
Q168. At high altitude (chronic), the O₂-Hb dissociation curve shifts to the left.
Q169. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can be used as diuretics.
Q170. Heparin can be given orally.
Q171. Type II muscle fibers (fast-twitch) have more mitochondria than Type I.
Q172. The renal medulla is hyperosmolar compared to the cortex.
Q173. PTH decreases phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Q174. The Bohr effect describes rightward shift of O₂-Hb curve with increased pH.
Q175. Epinephrine binds both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors.

SECTION C — ASSERTION-REASON

Options:
  • A — Both Assertion and Reason are true; Reason IS the correct explanation
  • B — Both are true; Reason is NOT the correct explanation
  • C — Assertion is true; Reason is false
  • D — Assertion is false; Reason is true
  • E — Both are false
Q176. Assertion: Myelinated nerve fibers conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated fibers. Reason: In myelinated fibers, action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier to the next (saltatory conduction).
Q177. Assertion: Skeletal muscle contraction requires calcium ions. Reason: Calcium binds directly to tropomyosin to cause its conformational change.
Q178. Assertion: Carbon monoxide poisoning leads to tissue hypoxia despite normal arterial PO₂. Reason: CO binds hemoglobin with much higher affinity than O₂ and causes a left shift of the O₂-Hb curve.
Q179. Assertion: Patients with emphysema have increased lung compliance. Reason: Emphysema destroys alveolar walls and elastic tissue.
Q180. Assertion: ADH deficiency causes production of large volumes of dilute urine. Reason: Without ADH, the collecting duct remains impermeable to water.
Q181. Assertion: In metabolic alkalosis, respiratory compensation causes hypoventilation. Reason: Retained CO₂ lowers pH, partially compensating for the alkalosis.
Q182. Assertion: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia. Reason: Furosemide inhibits NKCC2 in the thick ascending limb, increasing tubular flow to the distal nephron and promoting K⁺ secretion.
Q183. Assertion: Blood group O is the universal donor. Reason: Group O RBCs lack A and B antigens, so they are not agglutinated by anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the recipient.
Q184. Assertion: High altitude causes a right shift of the O₂-Hb dissociation curve. Reason: Hypoxia increases 2,3-BPG in RBCs, reducing hemoglobin's oxygen affinity.
Q185. Assertion: Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver. Reason: Insulin activates glycogen synthase and inhibits glycogen phosphorylase.
Q186. Assertion: PTH increases serum calcium and decreases serum phosphate. Reason: PTH stimulates osteoclasts and decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Q187. Assertion: The Frank-Starling mechanism allows the heart to match output to venous return. Reason: Increased end-diastolic volume stretches myocardial fibers, increasing the force of contraction.
Q188. Assertion: Vagal stimulation slows the heart rate. Reason: Acetylcholine from the vagus nerve increases K⁺ permeability, hyperpolarizing the SA node.
Q189. Assertion: Erythropoietin is increased in anemia and at high altitude. Reason: Hypoxia stimulates renal EPO production via HIF-1α.
Q190. Assertion: Surfactant prevents alveolar collapse by increasing surface tension. Reason: Increased surface tension keeps alveoli open.

SECTION D — HIGH-YIELD MCQs (Q191–Q200)

Q191. The primary center for regulation of body temperature is:
  • A) Cerebral cortex
  • B) Hypothalamus
  • C) Cerebellum
  • D) Medulla oblongata
Q192. The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of:
  • A) Macula densa + JG cells + extraglomerular mesangial cells
  • B) Podocytes + mesangial cells
  • C) Bowman's capsule + glomerulus
  • D) DCT + collecting duct
Q193. Vitamin D is activated to its most active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) — the final step occurs in:
  • A) Liver
  • B) Kidney
  • C) Skin
  • D) Intestine
Q194. Normal serum calcium level is:
  • A) 5–7 mg/dL
  • B) 8.5–10.5 mg/dL
  • C) 12–14 mg/dL
  • D) 2–4 mg/dL
Q195. Trousseau's sign and Chvostek's sign indicate:
  • A) Hypercalcemia
  • B) Hypocalcemia
  • C) Hypermagnesemia
  • D) Hypernatremia
Q196. The hormone responsible for the "fight or flight" response is:
  • A) Cortisol
  • B) Aldosterone
  • C) Epinephrine
  • D) Glucagon
Q197. Renin acts on _______ to produce angiotensin I:
  • A) Aldosterone
  • B) Angiotensinogen
  • C) Angiotensin II
  • D) ACE
Q198. The refractory period of cardiac muscle is longer than skeletal muscle in order to:
  • A) Increase heart rate
  • B) Prevent tetanic contraction of the heart
  • C) Allow more calcium influx
  • D) Reduce oxygen consumption
Q199. Normal serum osmolality is:
  • A) 200–240 mOsm/kg
  • B) 270–290 mOsm/kg
  • C) 300–320 mOsm/kg
  • D) 350–400 mOsm/kg
Q200. Which hormone directly stimulates milk ejection (let-down reflex)?
  • A) Prolactin
  • B) Estrogen
  • C) Oxytocin
  • D) FSH

ANSWER KEY

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
1B51D101B151B
2B52D102B152C
3B53C103B153B
4B54B104C154B
5B55C105B155B
6C56B106C156True
7C57C107B157False
8B58C108B158False
9B59B109B159True
10B60C110B160False
11B61B111C161True
12C62B112C162False
13D63B113B163True
14B64C114C164False
15B65B115B165True
16B66B116C166False
17B67B117B167True
18B68B118B168False
19C69B119B169True
20C70B120B170False
21B71C121B171False
22B72B122B172True
23B73B123C173True
24B74A124B174False
25C75B125B175True
26B76B126C176A
27B77B127B177C
28C78B128B178A
29C79B129B179A
30B80B130B180A
31B81B131B181A
32C82B132C182A
33C83C133C183A
34B84B134B184A
35D85C135C185A
36C86B136B186A
37B87C137B187A
38B88B138B188A
39B89A139B189A
40B90B140A190E
41B91B141B191B
42B92B142B192A
43C93B143C193B
44C94B144B194B
45C95C145C195B
46B96B146B196C
47B97C147C197B
48B98B148B198B
49B99B149B199B
50B100B150C200C
200 questions complete. Topics covered: Nerve & Muscle, Blood, Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Renal, and Endocrine physiology — all formatted cleanly with answers only in the key.
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