You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 16-year-old girl comes to the emergency department because of left wrist pain and swelling for 5 hours. She fell on an outstretched hand while playing basketball. She ignored it initially as she thought it was just a bruise, but the pain and swelling worsened throughout the day. The analgesic spray she used did not provide adequate relief. There is no family history of serious illness. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill. Her immunizations are up-to-date. She appears anxious. Her temperature is 37.1°C (99°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg. Examination shows a swollen and tender left wrist; range of motion is limited. The anatomical snuffbox is tender to palpation. The grip strength of the left hand is decreased. The thumb can be opposed towards the other fingers. Finkelstein's test is negative. X-rays of the wrist shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in management? Options: A) Corticosteroid injections B) Thumb spica cast and repeat x-rays in 2 weeks C) Rest, ice, and repeat x-rays in 2 weeks D) Percutaneous pinning " Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.