You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 60-year-old female presents to her gynecologist with vaginal bleeding. She underwent menopause ten years prior. She has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. On physical examination, her uterus is uniformly enlarged. Ultrasound reveals a thickened endometrial stripe and tissue biopsy reveals neoplastic endometrial cells. A workup for metastatic disease is negative and the gynecologist recommends a laparoscopic hysterectomy. During the procedure, the surgeon ligates multiple vessels in order to remove the entire uterus. In the immediate postoperative period, the patient develops left-sided flank pain and oliguria. Serum creatinine is found to be 1.4 mg/dl whereas it was 1.0 mg/dl prior to the operation. Renal ultrasound is normal. Urinalysis is notable for hematuria. Ligation of which of the following vessels most likely contributed to this patient’s condition? Options: A) Artery of Sampson B) Ovarian artery C) Superior vesical artery D) Uterine artery Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.