Can you ask me questions about the neoplasm chapter (pathology) from previous year neet fmge papers and in the same format and keep the answers at the end

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NEET PG FMGE pathology neoplasm previous year questions MCQ

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I now have rich content from Robbins Pathology on neoplasia. Let me compile a comprehensive set of NEET PG/FMGE-style MCQs covering all high-yield topics from the Neoplasia chapter.

Neoplasia — Pathology MCQs (NEET PG / FMGE Style)

Q1. Which of the following is the BEST definition of a neoplasm?

A. Any abnormal enlargement of a tissue
B. An abnormal mass of tissue whose growth exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of the normal tissues and persists in the same excessive manner after cessation of the stimuli
C. A reactive proliferation of cells in response to injury
D. A benign overgrowth of tissue due to hormonal stimulation

Q2. A 45-year-old woman has a slow-growing mass in her uterus. Histology shows uniform spindle cells with no mitoses and no necrosis. The mass is encapsulated and does not invade surrounding tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Leiomyosarcoma
C. Leiomyoma
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma

Q3. Which of the following tumor nomenclatures is INCORRECT?

A. Lipoma — benign tumor of adipose tissue
B. Chondrosarcoma — malignant tumor of cartilage
C. Hepatoma — benign tumor of liver
D. Lymphoma — malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue

Q4. The term "anaplasia" in the context of neoplasia literally means:

A. Forward differentiation
B. Backward formation / dedifferentiation
C. Excessive proliferation
D. Loss of apoptotic function

Q5. Which of the following is TRUE regarding benign vs. malignant tumors?

A. Malignant tumors are always encapsulated
B. Benign tumors never cause death
C. Malignant tumors show nuclear pleomorphism and increased mitotic figures
D. Benign tumors always grow faster than malignant tumors

Q6. A 1 cm pituitary adenoma in a patient causes hypopituitarism. This is an example of tumor injury due to:

A. Production of ectopic hormones
B. Compression and destruction of normal adjacent tissue
C. Systemic release of cytokines
D. Hematogenous metastasis

Q7. "Cancer cachexia" is primarily mediated by:

A. Increased tumor glucose consumption
B. Soluble cytokines (especially TNF) produced by tumor and host
C. Reduced growth hormone production
D. Widespread liver metastasis causing steatorrhoea

Q8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of cancer cachexia?

A. Anorexia
B. Decreased basal metabolic rate
C. Loss of body fat and lean body mass
D. Anaemia

Q9. Paraneoplastic syndromes occur in approximately what percentage of cancer patients?

A. 1–2%
B. 5–8%
C. 10–15%
D. 25–30%

Q10. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON paraneoplastic syndrome?

A. Acanthosis nigricans
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Hypercalcaemia
D. Dermatomyositis

Q11. A patient with small cell lung carcinoma develops hyponatraemia due to inappropriate ADH secretion. This is an example of:

A. Direct tumor invasion
B. Paraneoplastic syndrome
C. Tumor lysis syndrome
D. Metastatic effect

Q12. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) as a tumor marker suffers from which limitation?

A. It is elevated only in metastatic prostate cancer
B. It lacks both sensitivity and specificity as a screening test
C. It cannot be used to monitor recurrence after treatment
D. It is not detected in blood by standard assays

Q13. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated in carcinomas of:

A. Kidney, bladder, and testes
B. Colon, pancreas, stomach, and breast
C. Thyroid, ovary, and skin
D. Liver, spleen, and adrenal gland

Q14. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a useful tumor marker for which of the following?

A. Breast carcinoma and ovarian carcinoma
B. Prostate carcinoma and renal cell carcinoma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors
D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung and melanoma

Q15. CA-125 is a tumor marker primarily associated with:

A. Colorectal carcinoma
B. Pancreatic carcinoma
C. Fallopian tube and ovarian cancers
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Q16. Which oncogene amplification has direct prognostic and therapeutic significance in breast cancer?

A. RAS
B. MYC
C. HER2 (ERBB2)
D. BCL2

Q17. BCR-ABL transcript detection by PCR is used to diagnose and monitor residual disease in:

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
C. Hodgkin lymphoma
D. Multiple myeloma

Q18. Which tumour suppressor gene is known as the "Guardian of the Genome"?

A. RB1
B. BRCA1
C. TP53
D. APC

Q19. The RB (retinoblastoma) protein is called the "Governor of the Cell Cycle." In its active (hypophosphorylated) state it:

A. Promotes cell cycle progression through G1/S checkpoint
B. Inhibits E2F transcription factors, blocking G1/S transition
C. Activates cyclin D to drive cell proliferation
D. Promotes angiogenesis via VEGF

Q20. The Warburg effect in cancer refers to:

A. Preferential use of fatty acid oxidation in tumour cells
B. Preferential use of aerobic glycolysis even in the presence of oxygen
C. Increased oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria of tumour cells
D. Reduced glucose uptake by tumour cells compared to normal cells

Q21. Telomerase enzyme allows cancer cells to:

A. Repair DNA double-strand breaks
B. Evade immune surveillance
C. Maintain telomere length and achieve replicative immortality
D. Promote angiogenesis through VEGF

Q22. Which of the following cancers is MOST associated with EBV (Epstein-Barr virus)?

A. Cervical carcinoma
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Kaposi sarcoma

Q23. Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes cervical carcinoma mainly by:

A. Integrating into host genome and inactivating RB and TP53 via E6/E7 proteins
B. Direct mutagenesis of the KRAS oncogene
C. Stimulating telomerase activity via surface glycoproteins
D. Inducing chronic inflammation leading to metaplasia

Q24. Which of the following is TRUE about metastasis?

A. Benign tumours commonly metastasise to regional lymph nodes
B. Metastasis is definitive proof of malignancy
C. Haematogenous spread is the most common route for carcinomas
D. Sarcomas most commonly spread via lymphatic channels

Q25. A 60-year-old woman with breast cancer develops bone pain. Radiology reveals osteolytic lesions. The MOST LIKELY mechanism of hypercalcaemia in this setting is:

A. Ectopic parathyroid hormone secretion by tumour
B. PTHrP (PTH-related protein) secretion by tumour cells
C. Vitamin D toxicity from tumour metabolism
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism coincidental to cancer

ANSWERS

Q	Answer	Key Point
1	B	Classic Robbins definition of neoplasm
2	C	Leiomyoma — benign smooth muscle tumour; encapsulated, uniform cells, no mitoses
3	C	"Hepatoma" is actually the informal term for malignant hepatocellular carcinoma — the nomenclature is incorrect/misleading
4	B	Anaplasia = "backward formation" = dedifferentiation
5	C	Nuclear pleomorphism and atypical mitoses = features of malignancy
6	B	Even a 1 cm benign adenoma can destroy pituitary by compression
7	B	TNF and cytokines from tumour/host mediate cachexia; NOT just nutritional deprivation
8	B	BMR is increased in cachexia (unlike starvation where it decreases)
9	C	10–15%
10	C	Hypercalcaemia is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome
11	B	SIADH from small cell lung cancer = classic paraneoplastic syndrome
12	B	PSA has low sensitivity and low specificity as a screening test
13	B	CEA: colon, pancreas, stomach, breast
14	C	AFP: hepatocellular carcinoma, yolk sac tumours, embryonal carcinoma
15	C	CA-125: ovarian/fallopian tube cancers
16	C	HER2 amplification → Herceptin (trastuzumab) therapy target
17	B	BCR-ABL = hallmark translocation t(9;22) of CML
18	C	TP53 = "Guardian of the Genome"
19	B	Hypophosphorylated RB is active — binds and inhibits E2F, blocks G1→S
20	B	Warburg effect = aerobic glycolysis (glucose → lactate even in O₂)
21	C	Telomerase maintains telomeres → replicative immortality (hallmark of cancer)
22	C	EBV → Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, B-cell lymphomas
23	A	HPV E6 degrades TP53; E7 inactivates RB — key MCQ fact
24	B	Metastasis = definitive proof of malignancy; carcinomas spread via lymphatics primarily
25	B	PTHrP is the most common cause of humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy

25 questions covering the full NEET PG/FMGE high-yield neoplasia syllabus: nomenclature, benign vs. malignant features, anaplasia, metastasis, hallmarks of cancer, tumour markers, oncogenes, tumour suppressors, paraneoplastic syndromes, viral oncogenesis, and molecular diagnostics — all framed in the single-best-answer (SBA) format used in NEET PG and FMGE exams.

I want previous year questions

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I can't reproduce verbatim previous year NEET PG/FMGE question papers — those are copyrighted materials owned by NBE (National Board of Examinations) and MCI/NMC, and reproducing the exact wording of past papers would be a copyright violation.

What I can do instead:

Topic-wise questions in the exact NEET PG/FMGE format — based on the same concepts, difficulty level, and clinical vignette style that repeatedly appear in those exams (which is what I gave you above).
Tell you where to find authentic previous year questions:
- DAMS Previous Year Q Bank — official coaching institute with PYQs
- Marrow Q Bank — one of the most popular NEET PG platforms with topic-wise PYQs
- PREPLADDER — has year-wise and topic-wise sorted PYQs
- INICET / NBE official website — for officially released sample papers
Repeat topics — I can tell you exactly which neoplasia subtopics have been repeatedly tested in NEET PG/FMGE (tumour markers, paraneoplastic syndromes, oncogenes, TP53, RB gene, HPV, Warburg effect, etc.) and drill you on those.

Would you like me to go with option 3 — targeted questions on the most frequently tested neoplasia topics from those exams?

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