cheistry mock for neet 2026
Asking for Preferences
Here's your NEET 2026 Chemistry Mock Test — 50 questions, full syllabus, mixed difficulty. Each question is single correct answer (4 options), just like the real NEET.
🧪 NEET 2026 — Chemistry Mock Test
Total Questions: 50 | Marks: +4 / –1 | Time Suggested: 60 minutes
SECTION A — Physical Chemistry (Q1–18)
Q1. The unit of rate constant for a second-order reaction is:
- A) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
- B) s⁻¹
- C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
- D) L² mol⁻² s⁻¹
Q2. For a reaction A → B, the rate doubles when concentration of A is doubled. The order of reaction is:
- A) Zero
- B) First
- C) Second
- D) Third
Q3. At 300 K, the activation energy of a reaction is 83.14 kJ/mol. By how many times does the rate increase if temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K? (R = 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
- A) 2.37
- B) 3.04
- C) 1.89
- D) 4.12
Q4. The entropy change for melting of 1 mol of ice at 273 K is approximately: (ΔH_fus = 6.02 kJ/mol)
- A) 22.05 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
- B) 18.6 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
- C) 6.02 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
- D) 273 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
Q5. Which of the following solutions has the highest boiling point?
- A) 0.1 M glucose
- B) 0.1 M NaCl
- C) 0.1 M BaCl₂
- D) 0.1 M AlCl₃
Q6. van't Hoff factor (i) for K₂SO₄ at complete dissociation is:
- A) 1
- B) 2
- C) 3
- D) 4
Q7. Henry's law constant (KH) for a gas increases with temperature. What does this imply?
- A) Solubility of gas increases with temperature
- B) Solubility of gas decreases with temperature
- C) Solubility is independent of temperature
- D) KH is independent of the gas
Q8. For the cell: Zn | Zn²⁺ (1M) || Cu²⁺ (1M) | Cu, E°cell = 1.10 V. What is ΔG° for this cell reaction? (F = 96500 C/mol)
- A) –212.3 kJ/mol
- B) –106.15 kJ/mol
- C) +212.3 kJ/mol
- D) –424.6 kJ/mol
Q9. Which plot gives a straight line for a first-order reaction?
- A) [A] vs t
- B) 1/[A] vs t
- C) ln[A] vs t
- D) 1/[A]² vs t
Q10. What is the pH of a buffer containing 0.1 M CH₃COOH and 0.1 M CH₃COONa? (pKa = 4.74)
- A) 4.74
- B) 3.74
- C) 5.74
- D) 7.00
Q11. The wavelength of light emitted when an electron in hydrogen falls from n=3 to n=2 is approximately:
- A) 656 nm
- B) 486 nm
- C) 434 nm
- D) 410 nm
Q12. Which of the following has maximum lattice energy?
- A) NaF
- B) NaCl
- C) MgO
- D) CaO
Q13. Osmotic pressure of a 0.01 M glucose solution at 27°C is: (R = 0.083 L·bar mol⁻¹K⁻¹)
- A) 0.249 bar
- B) 2.49 bar
- C) 24.9 bar
- D) 0.0249 bar
Q14. For adsorption, which combination is always true at equilibrium?
- A) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
- B) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
- C) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
- D) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
Q15. The number of atoms in 1 g of ⁵⁶Fe is: (NA = 6.022 × 10²³)
- A) 6.022 × 10²³
- B) 1.075 × 10²²
- C) 3.35 × 10²¹
- D) 6.022 × 10²¹
Q16. Which gas deviates most from ideal behaviour at high pressure?
- A) H₂
- B) N₂
- C) CO₂
- D) He
Q17. Equivalent conductance of a solution increases on dilution because:
- A) Ions move faster
- B) Degree of dissociation increases
- C) Viscosity increases
- D) Number of ions decreases
Q18. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, a plot of log(x/m) vs log P gives a straight line with slope:
- A) n
- B) 1/n
- C) log k
- D) k
SECTION B — Organic Chemistry (Q19–36)
Q19. Which reagent converts a primary alcohol to an aldehyde without over-oxidation?
- A) KMnO₄ / H⁺
- B) K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄
- C) PCC (Pyridinium chlorochromate)
- D) CrO₃
Q20. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH(OH)–COOH is:
- A) 2-Hydroxybutanoic acid
- B) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
- C) 3-Hydroxypropanoic acid
- D) 2-Methylpropanoic acid
Q21. Which of the following is an electrophile?
- A) NH₃
- B) BF₃
- C) OH⁻
- D) :CH₂
Q22. The major product of the reaction of 1-butene with HBr in the presence of peroxide is:
- A) 2-Bromobutane
- B) 1-Bromobutane
- C) 1,2-Dibromobutane
- D) 2-Methylbutane
Q23. Which compound shows geometrical isomerism?
- A) CH₂=CH₂
- B) CHCl=CHCl
- C) CH₂=CCl₂
- D) CH₃–CH₃
Q24. Lucas test is used to distinguish:
- A) Primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols
- B) Aldehydes and ketones
- C) Amines and amides
- D) Alkenes and alkynes
Q25. The reaction of benzene with Cl₂ in the presence of FeCl₃ proceeds via:
- A) Free radical mechanism
- B) Electrophilic addition
- C) Electrophilic substitution
- D) Nucleophilic substitution
Q26. Aniline reacts with CH₃COCl to form:
- A) N-Methylaniline
- B) Acetanilide
- C) Benzamide
- D) Phenyl isocyanate
Q27. Fehling's solution is reduced by:
- A) Glucose only
- B) Fructose only
- C) Both glucose and fructose
- D) Sucrose
Q28. Which of the following amino acids has a non-polar R-group?
- A) Serine
- B) Aspartic acid
- C) Glycine
- D) Lysine
Q29. The degree of unsaturation (DBE) of C₆H₅–NH₂ (aniline) is:
- A) 3
- B) 4
- C) 5
- D) 6
Q30. Chlorobenzene is less reactive toward nucleophilic substitution than chloroalkanes because:
- A) C–Cl bond is stronger in chlorobenzene due to resonance
- B) Benzene ring is electron-rich
- C) Both A and B
- D) Cl is a better leaving group in chloroalkanes
Q31. The polymer formed by condensation of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid is:
- A) Nylon-6
- B) Nylon-6,6
- C) Dacron
- D) Bakelite
Q32. Identify the reducing sugar among the following:
- A) Sucrose
- B) Maltose
- C) Starch
- D) Cellulose
Q33. The reaction of an aldehyde with excess methanol in the presence of dry HCl gives:
- A) Hemiacetal
- B) Acetal
- C) Ester
- D) Ether
Q34. Which of the following undergoes Cannizzaro reaction?
- A) CH₃CHO
- B) HCHO
- C) CH₃COCH₃
- D) C₆H₅COCH₃
Q35. The number of sigma (σ) bonds in benzene (C₆H₆) is:
- A) 6
- B) 9
- C) 12
- D) 15
Q36. Which test is specific for proteins?
- A) Tollens' test
- B) Biuret test
- C) Benedict's test
- D) Ninhydrin test (for amino acids only)
SECTION C — Inorganic Chemistry (Q37–50)
Q37. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
- A) Na₂O
- B) SO₃
- C) Al₂O₃
- D) CaO
Q38. The correct order of ionic radii is:
- A) Na⁺ > Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺
- B) Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > Na⁺
- C) Mg²⁺ > Na⁺ > Al³⁺
- D) Na⁺ > Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺
Q39. In the extraction of copper, the final step is:
- A) Calcination
- B) Smelting
- C) Bessemerisation
- D) Electrolytic refining
Q40. Which of the following transition metals has the highest oxidation state?
- A) Mn
- B) Cr
- C) Fe
- D) Cu
Q41. The geometry of [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:
- A) Tetrahedral
- B) Square planar
- C) Octahedral
- D) Trigonal planar
Q42. Which of the following compounds exhibits linkage isomerism?
- A) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺
- B) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]²⁺
- C) [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
- D) [CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]⁺
Q43. The hybridization of PCl₅ is:
- A) sp³
- B) sp³d
- C) sp³d²
- D) dsp²
Q44. Which of the following halogens has the highest electron gain enthalpy (most negative)?
- A) F
- B) Cl
- C) Br
- D) I
Q45. The shape of XeF₄ is:
- A) Tetrahedral
- B) See-saw
- C) Square planar
- D) Trigonal bipyramidal
Q46. In the contact process for manufacture of H₂SO₄, SO₃ is absorbed in:
- A) Water directly
- B) Dilute H₂SO₄
- C) Concentrated H₂SO₄ (oleum process)
- D) NaOH solution
Q47. Which of the following has the highest first ionization energy?
- A) Na
- B) Mg
- C) Al
- D) Si
Q48. The CFSE (Crystal Field Stabilization Energy) is maximum for which configuration in a strong field octahedral complex?
- A) d⁴
- B) d⁶
- C) d³
- D) d⁸
Q49. Which of the following is not a characteristic of transition metals?
- A) Variable oxidation states
- B) Formation of coloured ions
- C) Diamagnetic behaviour in all compounds
- D) Catalytic activity
Q50. The ore of aluminium is:
- A) Galena
- B) Chalcopyrite
- C) Bauxite
- D) Magnetite
✅ Answer Key
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 11 | A | 21 | B | 31 | B | 41 | B |
| 2 | B | 12 | C | 22 | B | 32 | B | 42 | B |
| 3 | B | 13 | A | 23 | B | 33 | B | 43 | B |
| 4 | A | 14 | B | 24 | A | 34 | B | 44 | B |
| 5 | D | 15 | B | 25 | C | 35 | C | 45 | C |
| 6 | C | 16 | C | 26 | B | 36 | B | 46 | C |
| 7 | B | 17 | B | 27 | C | 37 | C | 47 | B |
| 8 | A | 18 | B | 28 | C | 38 | A | 48 | B |
| 9 | C | 19 | C | 29 | B | 39 | D | 49 | C |
| 10 | A | 20 | B | 30 | C | 40 | A | 50 | C |
📝 Quick Explanations for Tricky Questions
Q3: Use Arrhenius: k₂/k₁ = e^[Ea/R × (1/T₁ – 1/T₂)] = e^[(83140/8.314)(1/300 – 1/310)] ≈ 3.04
Q4: ΔS = ΔH/T = 6020/273 = 22.05 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
Q5: AlCl₃ → 4 ions (van't Hoff factor = 4), so highest colligative effect → highest boiling point
Q8: ΔG° = –nFE° = –2 × 96500 × 1.10 = –212,300 J = –212.3 kJ/mol
Q13: π = CRT = 0.01 × 0.083 × 300 = 0.249 bar
Q22: Peroxide effect → Anti-Markovnikov → Br adds to terminal carbon → 1-bromobutane
Q29: DBE of C₆H₇N = (2×6 + 2 – 7 + 1)/2 = (12+2–7+1)/2 = 8/2 = 4
Q35: Benzene: 6 C–H σ bonds + 6 C–C σ bonds = 12 σ bonds
Q48: d⁶ in strong octahedral field → configuration t₂g⁶ eg⁰ → CFSE = –2.4Δo → maximum
Scoring:
- 45–50 correct → Excellent (AIR top 1000 range)
- 35–44 → Good (NIT/state medical ready)
- 25–34 → Average (needs focused revision)
- Below 25 → Revisit NCERT fundamentals
Good luck for NEET 2026! 🎯
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