I need full syllabus mock but it should not be overall physics chemistry biology but it should be separate physics app chemistry for 2026

I need a bit more clarity before building this for you.

Asking for Preferences

Which exam is this mock test for? · What format do you want for each subject's mock? · Difficulty level for the questions?

Got it. Creating 3 separate NEET 2026 Full Syllabus Mock Tests — one each for Physics, Chemistry, and Biology — in full NEET paper format (MCQ + Assertion-Reason + Case-Based), mixed difficulty.---

📘 NEET 2026 — FULL SYLLABUS MOCK TEST: PHYSICS

Total Questions: 45 | Marks: 180 | Time: 1 Hour (+4 for correct, −1 for wrong)

SECTION A — MCQ (35 Questions)

Class 11 Topics

Q1. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u. The ratio of time of ascent to time of descent is:

(A) 1:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 2:1
(D) Depends on initial velocity

✅ Answer: (A) 1:1 Time of ascent = time of descent in absence of air resistance.

Q2. The dimensional formula of angular momentum is:

(A) [ML²T⁻¹]
(B) [MLT⁻¹]
(C) [ML²T⁻²]
(D) [M²L²T⁻¹]

✅ Answer: (A) [ML²T⁻¹]

Q3. A ball of mass 0.5 kg hits a wall with velocity 10 m/s and rebounds with the same speed. The change in momentum is:

(A) 0 kg m/s
(B) 5 kg m/s
(C) 10 kg m/s
(D) 20 kg m/s

✅ Answer: (C) 10 kg m/s Δp = m(v − u) = 0.5(10 − (−10)) = 10 kg m/s

Q4. A satellite is orbiting at height h above Earth's surface. If radius of Earth is R and g is surface gravity, orbital velocity is:

(A) √(gR)
(B) √(gR²/(R+h))
(C) √(g(R+h))
(D) gR/(R+h)

✅ Answer: (B) √(gR²/(R+h))

Q5. The specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is greater than at constant volume because:

(A) More heat is needed to raise temperature at constant pressure
(B) At constant pressure, work is done by the gas
(C) Internal energy change is higher at constant pressure
(D) Volume remains constant at constant pressure

✅ Answer: (B) At constant pressure, work is done by the gas

Q6. A simple pendulum has time period T on Earth. On Moon where g is 1/6th, time period will be:

(A) T/6
(B) T/√6
(C) T√6
(D) 6T

✅ Answer: (C) T√6 T ∝ 1/√g; so T_moon = T√(g_Earth/g_Moon) = T√6

Q7. The escape velocity from Earth's surface is approximately:

(A) 7.9 km/s
(B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 9.8 km/s
(D) 25 km/s

✅ Answer: (B) 11.2 km/s

Q8. Which law states that at constant temperature, PV = constant?

(A) Charles's Law
(B) Gay-Lussac's Law
(C) Boyle's Law
(D) Avogadro's Law

✅ Answer: (C) Boyle's Law

Q9. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels in air with speed 340 m/s. Its wavelength is:

(A) 0.34 m
(B) 0.68 m
(C) 1.70 m
(D) 170 m

✅ Answer: (B) 0.68 m λ = v/f = 340/500 = 0.68 m

Q10. The work done in an adiabatic process is:

(A) Zero
(B) Q − ΔU
(C) −ΔU
(D) ΔU

✅ Answer: (C) −ΔU Since Q = 0, W = −ΔU

Q11. In a perfectly elastic collision between two equal masses, after collision:

(A) Both come to rest
(B) First stops, second moves with initial velocity of first
(C) Both move with equal velocities
(D) First reverses, second stays

✅ Answer: (B) First stops, second moves with initial velocity of first

Q12. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:

(A) MR²
(B) ⅔ MR²
(C) ⅖ MR²
(D) ½ MR²

✅ Answer: (C) ⅖ MR²

Class 12 Topics

Q13. A charge Q is placed at the center of a cube. The flux through one face is:

(A) Q/ε₀
(B) Q/6ε₀
(C) 6Q/ε₀
(D) Q/2ε₀

✅ Answer: (B) Q/6ε₀ Total flux = Q/ε₀, divided equally among 6 faces

Q14. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled by:

(A) Doubling the distance between plates
(B) Halving the area of plates
(C) Halving the distance between plates
(D) Using a material with lower dielectric constant

✅ Answer: (C) Halving the distance between plates C = ε₀A/d

Q15. Ohm's law is NOT obeyed by:

(A) Copper wire
(B) Carbon resistor
(C) Semiconductor diode
(D) Nichrome wire

✅ Answer: (C) Semiconductor diode

Q16. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

(A) Tesla
(B) Weber
(C) Henry
(D) Ampere/metre

✅ Answer: (B) Weber

Q17. In a transformer, if the number of turns in the secondary is twice that of primary, then:

(A) Voltage is halved
(B) Voltage is doubled
(C) Current is doubled
(D) Power is doubled

✅ Answer: (B) Voltage is doubled

Q18. The photoelectric effect proves that light has:

(A) Wave nature
(B) Particle nature
(C) Both wave and particle
(D) Neither

✅ Answer: (B) Particle nature

Q19. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m and kinetic energy K is:

(A) h/√(2mK)
(B) h/√(mK)
(C) √(2mK)/h
(D) h√(2mK)

✅ Answer: (A) h/√(2mK)

Q20. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 years. After 30 years, the fraction remaining is:

(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/8
(D) 1/16

✅ Answer: (C) 1/8 30 years = 3 half-lives; fraction = (1/2)³ = 1/8

Q21. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?

(A) Microwaves
(B) X-rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) Ultraviolet rays

✅ Answer: (C) Gamma rays

Q22. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from:

(A) Rarer to denser medium, angle > critical angle
(B) Denser to rarer medium, angle > critical angle
(C) Rarer to denser medium, any angle
(D) Denser to rarer medium, angle < critical angle

✅ Answer: (B) Denser to rarer medium, angle > critical angle

Q23. In Young's double slit experiment, if the distance between slits is halved and distance to screen is doubled, the fringe width:

(A) Remains same
(B) Becomes half
(C) Becomes double
(D) Becomes 4 times

✅ Answer: (D) Becomes 4 times β = λD/d; if d → d/2 and D → 2D, then β → 4β

Q24. The logic gate whose output is 1 only when all inputs are 0:

(A) AND
(B) OR
(C) NOR
(D) NAND

✅ Answer: (C) NOR

Q25. In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias:

(A) Majority carriers flow
(B) Depletion layer narrows
(C) Barrier potential increases
(D) Resistance decreases

✅ Answer: (C) Barrier potential increases

Q26. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm away. Image distance is:

(A) 30 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 15 cm

✅ Answer: (B) 60 cm 1/v − 1/u = 1/f; 1/v = 1/20 + 1/(−30) = (3−2)/60 = 1/60; v = 60 cm

Q27. The rms value of AC voltage V = 220 sin(314t) is:

(A) 220 V
(B) 155.6 V
(C) 311 V
(D) 440 V

✅ Answer: (B) 155.6 V V_rms = V₀/√2 = 220/1.414 ≈ 155.6 V

Q28. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

(A) Electric field
(B) Magnetic moment
(C) Electric potential
(D) Force

✅ Answer: (C) Electric potential

Q29. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Iron (Fe-56)
(D) Uranium

✅ Answer: (C) Iron (Fe-56)

Q30. A proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. The de Broglie wavelength of the proton is:

(A) Greater than that of electron
(B) Less than that of electron
(C) Equal to that of electron
(D) Cannot be determined

✅ Answer: (B) Less than that of electron λ = h/√(2mK); more massive proton → shorter wavelength

Q31. Brewster's angle for a medium of refractive index √3 is:

(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°

✅ Answer: (C) 60° tan(θ_B) = n = √3 → θ_B = 60°

Q32. The energy of a photon with wavelength 600 nm (h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s) is approximately:

(A) 2.07 eV
(B) 3.1 eV
(C) 1.5 eV
(D) 4.2 eV

✅ Answer: (A) 2.07 eV E = hc/λ = (6.63×10⁻³⁴ × 3×10⁸)/(600×10⁻⁹) ≈ 3.31×10⁻¹⁹ J ≈ 2.07 eV

Q33. The graph of stopping potential vs frequency of incident light in photoelectric effect is:

(A) Parabolic
(B) Linear
(C) Exponential
(D) Hyperbolic

✅ Answer: (B) Linear

Q34. In an LC circuit, the energy oscillates between:

(A) Kinetic and potential energy
(B) Electric and magnetic energy
(C) Thermal and electrical energy
(D) Gravitational and magnetic energy

✅ Answer: (B) Electric and magnetic energy

Q35. A current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. The force on it is maximum when the angle between the conductor and field is:

(A) 0°
(B) 45°
(C) 90°
(D) 180°

✅ Answer: (C) 90° F = BIL sinθ; maximum at θ = 90°

SECTION B — ASSERTION-REASON (5 Questions)

Instructions: Choose the correct option:

(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Q36. Assertion (A): A geostationary satellite appears stationary to an observer on Earth. Reason (R): The time period of a geostationary satellite is 24 hours.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q37. Assertion (A): The wavelength of light used in optical microscopes is limited by diffraction. Reason (R): The resolving power of a microscope decreases with increasing wavelength.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q38. Assertion (A): A capacitor blocks DC but allows AC. Reason (R): The reactance of a capacitor X_C = 1/ωC; for DC, ω = 0, so X_C = ∞.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q39. Assertion (A): Nuclear fusion releases more energy per unit mass than nuclear fission. Reason (R): In fusion, heavier elements break into lighter ones.

✅ Answer: (C) A is true; R is false — fusion combines light nuclei (not breaks heavier ones)

Q40. Assertion (A): In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is always directed toward the equilibrium position. Reason (R): In SHM, force is proportional to displacement and directed away from equilibrium.

✅ Answer: (C) A is true; R is false — force is directed TOWARD equilibrium

SECTION C — CASE-BASED (5 Questions)

Case Study: A student sets up a Young's Double Slit Experiment with slit separation d = 0.5 mm, screen distance D = 1.5 m, and light of wavelength λ = 600 nm.

Q41. The fringe width in the experiment is:

(A) 0.9 mm
(B) 1.8 mm
(C) 0.45 mm
(D) 3.6 mm

✅ Answer: (B) 1.8 mm β = λD/d = (600×10⁻⁹ × 1.5)/(0.5×10⁻³) = 1.8×10⁻³ m = 1.8 mm

Q42. If the student now uses white light instead of monochromatic, the central fringe will be:

(A) Completely dark
(B) Coloured
(C) White
(D) Invisible

✅ Answer: (C) White All wavelengths overlap at the central maximum

Q43. If one of the slits is covered, the pattern observed on screen will be:

(A) Disappear entirely
(B) Remain unchanged
(C) Show a single-slit diffraction pattern
(D) Show only the central bright fringe

✅ Answer: (C) Show a single-slit diffraction pattern

Q44. The path difference for the 3rd bright fringe from the centre is:

(A) 3λ/2
(B) 3λ
(C) 2λ
(D) 5λ/2

✅ Answer: (B) 3λ Path difference for nth bright fringe = nλ

Q45. The fringe pattern will shift if:

(A) Both slits are made wider simultaneously
(B) A glass slab is placed in front of one slit
(C) The source is moved along the bisector
(D) The intensity of the source is doubled

✅ Answer: (B) A glass slab is placed in front of one slit This introduces an additional path difference, shifting the pattern

⚗️ NEET 2026 — FULL SYLLABUS MOCK TEST: CHEMISTRY

Total Questions: 45 | Marks: 180 | Time: 1 Hour (+4 for correct, −1 for wrong)

SECTION A — MCQ (35 Questions)

Physical Chemistry

Q1. Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity states that:

(A) Electrons fill lower energy orbitals first
(B) No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers
(C) Electrons occupy degenerate orbitals singly before pairing
(D) Electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing n+l

✅ Answer: (C)

Q2. The number of moles in 36 g of water is:

(A) 1 mol
(B) 2 mol
(C) 3 mol
(D) 18 mol

✅ Answer: (B) 2 mol Molar mass of H₂O = 18 g/mol; 36/18 = 2 mol

Q3. For a first-order reaction, when concentration is doubled, the rate:

(A) Remains same
(B) Doubles
(C) Quadruples
(D) Becomes half

✅ Answer: (B) Doubles

Q4. According to Arrhenius equation, increasing temperature increases rate because:

(A) Activation energy decreases
(B) Fraction of molecules with energy ≥ Ea increases
(C) Frequency factor decreases
(D) Activation energy increases

✅ Answer: (B)

Q5. The pH of a solution with [H⁺] = 10⁻³ M is:

(A) 11
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) −3

✅ Answer: (B) 3

Q6. Which of the following is an example of a lyophilic colloid?

(A) Gold sol
(B) Arsenic sulphide sol
(C) Starch sol
(D) Sulphur sol

✅ Answer: (C) Starch sol

Q7. The unit of rate constant for a second-order reaction is:

(A) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
(B) s⁻¹
(C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
(D) mol² L⁻² s⁻¹

✅ Answer: (C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹

Q8. At equilibrium for a reaction, ΔG° = 0 means:

(A) K = 0
(B) K = 1
(C) K = ∞
(D) Reaction does not occur

✅ Answer: (B) K = 1 ΔG° = −RT ln K; ΔG° = 0 → K = 1

Q9. Which type of isomerism is shown by [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ and [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl?

(A) Linkage isomerism
(B) Ionisation isomerism
(C) Coordination isomerism
(D) Geometrical isomerism

✅ Answer: (B) Ionisation isomerism

Q10. The colligative property used to determine the molar mass of polymers:

(A) Elevation in boiling point
(B) Depression in freezing point
(C) Osmotic pressure
(D) Vapour pressure lowering

✅ Answer: (C) Osmotic pressure Most sensitive for high molar mass compounds

Q11. For an electrochemical cell, ΔG° = −nFE°. If E° > 0:

(A) The reaction is non-spontaneous
(B) K < 1
(C) The reaction is spontaneous
(D) ΔH > 0

✅ Answer: (C) The reaction is spontaneous

Inorganic Chemistry

Q12. Which block in the periodic table contains the transition elements?

(A) s-block
(B) p-block
(C) d-block
(D) f-block

✅ Answer: (C) d-block

Q13. The hybridisation of sulphur in SF₆ is:

(A) sp³
(B) sp³d
(C) sp³d²
(D) sp²

✅ Answer: (C) sp³d²

Q14. Which of the following has the highest ionisation energy?

(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) Al
(D) Ne

✅ Answer: (D) Ne Noble gases have the highest ionisation energies

Q15. The process of zone refining is used to purify:

(A) Gold
(B) Silicon
(C) Aluminium
(D) Copper

✅ Answer: (B) Silicon

Q16. The colour of KMnO₄ is due to:

(A) d-d transition
(B) Charge transfer transition
(C) s-p transition
(D) f-f transition

✅ Answer: (B) Charge transfer transition

Q17. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent due to its:

(A) Acidic nature
(B) Oxidising nature in presence of water
(C) Reducing nature
(D) Ability to form hydrochloric acid

✅ Answer: (B) Oxidising nature in presence of water

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a property of transition metals?

(A) Variable oxidation states
(B) Formation of coloured compounds
(C) Diamagnetism in all cases
(D) Catalytic activity

✅ Answer: (C) Diamagnetism in all cases Most transition metal compounds are paramagnetic

Q19. The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] is:

(A) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
(B) Platinum diammine dichloride
(C) Dichlorodiammineplatinum
(D) Diammineplatinum dichloride

✅ Answer: (A) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)

Q20. Which gas is evolved when Na₂SO₃ reacts with dilute H₂SO₄?

(A) SO₃
(B) H₂S
(C) SO₂
(D) O₂

✅ Answer: (C) SO₂

Organic Chemistry

Q21. Markovnikov's rule applies to:

(A) Electrophilic substitution
(B) Addition to unsymmetrical alkenes
(C) Nucleophilic addition
(D) Elimination reactions

✅ Answer: (B) Addition to unsymmetrical alkenes

Q22. Which reagent converts a primary alcohol to an aldehyde without further oxidation?

(A) KMnO₄ (acidic)
(B) K₂Cr₂O₇ (acidic)
(C) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)
(D) H₂SO₄

✅ Answer: (C) PCC

Q23. Grignard reagent is an example of:

(A) Electrophile
(B) Nucleophile
(C) Free radical
(D) Oxidising agent

✅ Answer: (B) Nucleophile

Q24. The IUPAC name of CH₃−CH(OH)−CH₂−CH₃ is:

(A) 1-Butanol
(B) 3-Butanol
(C) 2-Butanol
(D) Butan-1-ol

✅ Answer: (C) 2-Butanol

Q25. Phenol is more acidic than alcohol because:

(A) −OH bond is weaker in phenol
(B) Phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance
(C) Phenol has a higher boiling point
(D) Phenol undergoes ortho/para substitution

✅ Answer: (B) Phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance

Q26. Reimer-Tiemann reaction is used for preparation of:

(A) Carboxylic acids from phenol
(B) Salicylaldehyde from phenol
(C) Nitrophenol
(D) Phenyl benzoate

✅ Answer: (B) Salicylaldehyde from phenol

Q27. Nylon-6,6 is a polymer of:

(A) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
(B) Caprolactam
(C) Glycine and alanine
(D) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid

✅ Answer: (A) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine

Q28. Which of the following is an analgesic?

(A) Chloramphenicol
(B) Aspirin
(C) Sulphadiazine
(D) Penicillin

✅ Answer: (B) Aspirin

Q29. The monomer of natural rubber is:

(A) Styrene
(B) Isoprene
(C) Chloroprene
(D) Ethylene

✅ Answer: (B) Isoprene (2-methylbuta-1,3-diene)

Q30. Benzene does NOT undergo addition reactions readily because:

(A) It has sigma bonds
(B) It is aromatic and delocalised π electrons confer stability
(C) Benzene is a gas
(D) It has only carbon atoms

✅ Answer: (B) Aromatic stability with delocalised π electrons

Q31. The order of reactivity of halides in SN2 reactions is:

(A) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
(B) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(C) RCl > RF > RI > RBr
(D) RF > RI > RCl > RBr

✅ Answer: (B) RI > RBr > RCl > RF Larger halide = better leaving group = faster SN2

Q32. Which of the following is a secondary amine?

(A) CH₃NH₂
(B) (CH₃)₂NH
(C) (CH₃)₃N
(D) C₆H₅NH₂

✅ Answer: (B) (CH₃)₂NH

Q33. The reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol in presence of H₂SO₄ is called:

(A) Saponification
(B) Esterification
(C) Transesterification
(D) Aldol condensation

✅ Answer: (B) Esterification (Fischer esterification)

Q34. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to give penta-acetate, suggesting glucose has:

(A) 5 −COOH groups
(B) 5 −CHO groups
(C) 5 −OH groups
(D) 5 amino groups

✅ Answer: (C) 5 −OH groups

Q35. Which of the following amino acids is essential?

(A) Alanine
(B) Glycine
(C) Lysine
(D) Serine

✅ Answer: (C) Lysine

SECTION B — ASSERTION-REASON (5 Questions)

Q36. Assertion (A): Diamond is a good conductor of heat but bad conductor of electricity. Reason (R): In diamond, all four valence electrons of carbon are involved in covalent bonding; there are no free electrons for electrical conductivity.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q37. Assertion (A): Among halogens, F₂ is the strongest oxidising agent. Reason (R): Fluorine has the highest electron gain enthalpy.

✅ Answer: (C) A is true; R is partially incorrect — F has the highest electronegativity and smallest size; its oxidising power is due to weak F−F bond + high hydration energy, NOT the highest electron gain enthalpy (Cl has higher)

Q38. Assertion (A): Phenol is a weaker acid than acetic acid. Reason (R): Phenoxide ion is more stable than acetate ion due to resonance.

✅ Answer: (D) A is false (phenol pKa ~10 vs acetic acid pKa ~4.7, so acetic acid IS stronger); R is false

Q39. Assertion (A): Osmotic pressure method is preferred for determining molar mass of macromolecules. Reason (R): Osmotic pressure is the only colligative property.

✅ Answer: (C) A is true; R is false — all four colligative properties exist

Q40. Assertion (A): Alkyl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution. Reason (R): The carbon bonded to the halogen is electrophilic due to inductive effect of the halogen.

✅ Answer: (A)

SECTION C — CASE-BASED (5 Questions)

Case Study: A student is studying the kinetics of a reaction A → Products. She finds that doubling the concentration of A doubles the reaction rate. She also measures rate constants at two temperatures:

k at 300 K = 2 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹
k at 310 K = 4 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹

Q41. The order of the reaction with respect to A is:

(A) Zero
(B) First
(C) Second
(D) Third

✅ Answer: (B) First

Q42. The half-life of the reaction at 300 K is:

(A) 500 s
(B) 693 s
(C) 346 s
(D) 1000 s

✅ Answer: (C) 346 s t₁/₂ = 0.693/k = 0.693/(2×10⁻³) = 346.5 s

Q43. The ratio of rate constants k₃₁₀/k₃₀₀ suggests that the rate approximately doubles for every:

(A) 5 K rise
(B) 10 K rise
(C) 20 K rise
(D) 50 K rise

✅ Answer: (B) 10 K rise This is the van't Hoff rule of thumb

Q44. The activation energy of the reaction can be found using:

(A) pH equation
(B) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
(C) Arrhenius equation: ln(k₂/k₁) = Ea/R × (1/T₁ − 1/T₂)
(D) Nernst equation

✅ Answer: (C)

Q45. If the reaction were second order, the unit of the rate constant would change to:

(A) s⁻¹
(B) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
(C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
(D) L² mol⁻² s⁻¹

✅ Answer: (C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹

🧬 NEET 2026 — FULL SYLLABUS MOCK TEST: BIOLOGY

Total Questions: 90 | Marks: 360 | Time: 1.5 Hours (+4 for correct, −1 for wrong) (Biology = 90 questions as per NEET pattern)

SECTION A — MCQ (70 Questions)

Botany

Q1. Which of the following algae is used as a biofertilizer in rice fields?

(A) Chara
(B) Nostoc
(C) Anabaena
(D) Both B and C

✅ Answer: (D) Both Nostoc and Anabaena

Q2. The 'gene theory' was proposed by:

(A) Gregor Mendel
(B) T.H. Morgan
(C) Hugo de Vries
(D) Walter Sutton

✅ Answer: (B) T.H. Morgan

Q3. Totipotency means:

(A) Ability of a cell to undergo meiosis
(B) Ability of any cell to develop into a whole organism
(C) Ability to form callus only
(D) Ability to undergo apoptosis

✅ Answer: (B)

Q4. The Casparian strip in roots is found in:

(A) Epidermis
(B) Cortex
(C) Endodermis
(D) Pericycle

✅ Answer: (C) Endodermis

Q5. Which plant hormone promotes fruit ripening?

(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Ethylene

✅ Answer: (D) Ethylene

Q6. The process of conversion of glucose to pyruvate is called:

(A) Krebs cycle
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Electron transport chain
(D) Fermentation

✅ Answer: (B) Glycolysis

Q7. In C₄ plants, the first stable product of CO₂ fixation is:

(A) 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA)
(B) Oxaloacetate (OAA)
(C) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
(D) Malate

✅ Answer: (B) Oxaloacetate (OAA)

Q8. Photoperiodism was discovered by:

(A) Knott and Garner
(B) Garner and Allard
(C) Sachs and Pfeffer
(D) Darwin and Darwin

✅ Answer: (B) Garner and Allard

Q9. Cork cambium (phellogen) gives rise to:

(A) Xylem and phloem
(B) Phellem (cork) outward and phelloderm inward
(C) Only pith
(D) Primary xylem

✅ Answer: (B)

Q10. Which type of placentation is seen in Argemone (prickly poppy)?

(A) Axile
(B) Parietal
(C) Marginal
(D) Basal

✅ Answer: (B) Parietal

Q11. The embryo sac of a typical angiosperm at maturity is:

(A) 4-nucleate
(B) 6-nucleate
(C) 7-celled, 8-nucleate
(D) 8-celled, 7-nucleate

✅ Answer: (C) 7-celled, 8-nucleate

Q12. The correct sequence of mitosis stages is:

(A) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
(B) Prophase → Anaphase → Metaphase → Telophase
(C) Metaphase → Prophase → Anaphase → Telophase
(D) Telophase → Anaphase → Metaphase → Prophase

✅ Answer: (A)

Q13. Water potential of pure water at standard temperature and pressure is:

(A) Greater than 0
(B) Less than 0
(C) Equal to 0
(D) Infinite

✅ Answer: (C) Equal to 0 (zero)

Q14. Which type of RNA acts as an adapter molecule during translation?

(A) mRNA
(B) rRNA
(C) tRNA
(D) hnRNA

✅ Answer: (C) tRNA

Q15. The oxygen-evolving complex (OEC) is associated with:

(A) Photosystem I
(B) ATP synthase
(C) Photosystem II
(D) Cytochrome b6f

✅ Answer: (C) Photosystem II

Q16. The p-protein in phloem is associated with:

(A) Sieve tubes
(B) Companion cells
(C) Xylem vessels
(D) Tracheids

✅ Answer: (A) Sieve tubes

Q17. Long-day plants flower when the dark period is:

(A) Longer than critical period
(B) Shorter than critical period
(C) Equal to critical period
(D) Absent

✅ Answer: (B) Shorter than critical period

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a micronutrient for plants?

(A) Boron
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Manganese
(D) Zinc

✅ Answer: (B) Nitrogen Nitrogen is a macronutrient

Q19. Vernalisation refers to the effect of:

(A) Long days on flowering
(B) Low temperature on flowering
(C) Drought on seed germination
(D) High temperature on dormancy

✅ Answer: (B) Low temperature on flowering

Q20. In plants, the food is translocated in the:

(A) Xylem
(B) Phloem
(C) Cortex
(D) Pith

✅ Answer: (B) Phloem

Q21. Malvaceae family is characterised by:

(A) Zygomorphic flowers
(B) Epipetalous stamens
(C) Epiphyllous stamens and monoadelphous androecium
(D) Superior ovary with parietal placentation

✅ Answer: (C) Epiphyllous stamens and monoadelphous androecium

Q22. Florigen (flowering hormone) is produced in:

(A) Roots
(B) Leaves
(C) Shoot apex
(D) Seeds

✅ Answer: (B) Leaves

Q23. The symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium found in legumes is:

(A) Azotobacter
(B) Frankia
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Clostridium

✅ Answer: (C) Rhizobium

Q24. The product of the Krebs cycle that enters the ETC directly is:

(A) NADH
(B) ATP
(C) Oxaloacetate
(D) Pyruvate

✅ Answer: (A) NADH

Q25. Which of the following is an apocarpous gynoecium?

(A) Mustard
(B) Rose
(C) Tomato
(D) Lemon

✅ Answer: (B) Rose

Zoology

Q26. The ABO blood group system is controlled by the gene 'I'. The gene I has:

(A) 2 alleles
(B) 3 alleles
(C) 4 alleles
(D) 1 allele

✅ Answer: (B) 3 alleles — I^A, I^B, i

Q27. The site of oxygenation of haemoglobin in humans is:

(A) Tissues
(B) Heart
(C) Lungs (alveoli)
(D) Spleen

✅ Answer: (C) Lungs (alveoli)

Q28. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

(A) Production of bile
(B) Detoxification
(C) Insulin secretion
(D) Glycogen storage

✅ Answer: (C) Insulin secretion Insulin is secreted by the pancreas (β-cells of islets of Langerhans)

Q29. The normal RBC count in adult males is approximately:

(A) 2–3 million/mm³
(B) 4.5–5.5 million/mm³
(C) 7–8 million/mm³
(D) 1–2 million/mm³

✅ Answer: (B) 4.5–5.5 million/mm³

Q30. The fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane was proposed by:

(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Singer and Nicolson
(C) Watson and Crick
(D) Schleiden and Schwann

✅ Answer: (B) Singer and Nicolson (1972)

Q31. The sinoatrial (SA) node is called the pacemaker because:

(A) It is the largest node
(B) It generates impulses automatically and sets the rhythm of the heart
(C) It controls the valves
(D) It receives blood directly

✅ Answer: (B)

Q32. The enzyme responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication is:

(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) Helicase
(D) Primase

✅ Answer: (C) Helicase

Q33. Which hormone is responsible for the "fight or flight" response?

(A) Cortisol
(B) Insulin
(C) Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
(D) Thyroxine

✅ Answer: (C) Adrenaline

Q34. The countercurrent exchange mechanism in kidneys occurs in:

(A) Proximal convoluted tubule
(B) Loop of Henle
(C) Distal convoluted tubule
(D) Bowman's capsule

✅ Answer: (B) Loop of Henle

Q35. Haemophilia is a:

(A) Autosomal dominant disorder
(B) Autosomal recessive disorder
(C) X-linked recessive disorder
(D) Y-linked disorder

✅ Answer: (C) X-linked recessive disorder

Q36. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is maintained by:

(A) Ca²⁺/Mg²⁺ pump
(B) Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump
(C) Cl⁻ channels only
(D) Glucose transport

✅ Answer: (B) Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump

Q37. The process of formation of spermatozoa from spermatogonia is called:

(A) Oogenesis
(B) Gametogenesis
(C) Spermatogenesis
(D) Fertilisation

✅ Answer: (C) Spermatogenesis

Q38. Insulin is secreted by which cells of the islets of Langerhans?

(A) Alpha cells
(B) Beta cells
(C) Delta cells
(D) PP cells

✅ Answer: (B) Beta cells

Q39. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by:

(A) Large population size
(B) Random mating
(C) No mutation
(D) Natural selection

✅ Answer: (D) Natural selection

Q40. Which type of immunity involves memory cells?

(A) Innate immunity
(B) Active acquired immunity
(C) Passive immunity
(D) Non-specific immunity

✅ Answer: (B) Active acquired immunity

Q41. The corpus luteum secretes:

(A) Oestrogen only
(B) Progesterone primarily
(C) FSH
(D) LH

✅ Answer: (B) Progesterone primarily

Q42. The chemical responsible for the colour of butterfly wings is usually:

(A) Melanin
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Structural coloration through nanostructures / pigments
(D) Chlorophyll

✅ Answer: (C)

Q43. Which of the following is a recombinant DNA technology product?

(A) Streptokinase (from Streptococcus)
(B) Humulin (human insulin produced by E. coli)
(C) Penicillin
(D) Aspirin

✅ Answer: (B) Humulin

Q44. The Meselson-Stahl experiment proved that DNA replication is:

(A) Conservative
(B) Dispersive
(C) Semi-conservative
(D) Unidirectional

✅ Answer: (C) Semi-conservative

Q45. Miller and Urey's experiment simulated conditions of:

(A) Present-day atmosphere
(B) Primitive earth atmosphere
(C) Deep-sea vents
(D) High-altitude atmosphere

✅ Answer: (B) Primitive earth atmosphere

Q46. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sequences called:

(A) Promoter sequences
(B) Palindromic sequences
(C) Enhancer sequences
(D) Terminator sequences

✅ Answer: (B) Palindromic sequences

Q47. Which of the following is an example of in situ conservation?

(A) Seed bank
(B) Zoological park
(C) National park
(D) Botanical garden

✅ Answer: (C) National park

Q48. BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) is a measure of:

(A) Oxygen content of water
(B) Organic pollution load in water
(C) Turbidity of water
(D) Heavy metal contamination

✅ Answer: (B) Organic pollution load in water

Q49. A species endemic to India means it is:

(A) Found all over the world
(B) Extinct in India
(C) Found only in India and nowhere else
(D) Introduced from another region

✅ Answer: (C) Found only in India and nowhere else

Q50. The age structure of a population is best depicted by a:

(A) Line graph
(B) Population pyramid
(C) Scatter plot
(D) Pie chart

✅ Answer: (B) Population pyramid

Q51. Which enzyme is used to make cDNA from mRNA?

(A) DNA polymerase
(B) Reverse transcriptase
(C) Helicase
(D) RNA polymerase

✅ Answer: (B) Reverse transcriptase

Q52. Bt toxin is obtained from:

(A) Bacillus anthracis
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(D) Pseudomonas

✅ Answer: (B) Bacillus thuringiensis

Q53. The secondary structure of protein involves:

(A) Peptide bonds
(B) Disulphide bridges
(C) Hydrogen bonds forming α-helix and β-sheets
(D) Ionic bonds

✅ Answer: (C) Hydrogen bonds

Q54. Apomixis in plants means:

(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Vegetative propagation
(C) Seed formation without fertilisation
(D) Cross-pollination

✅ Answer: (C) Seed formation without fertilisation

Q55. The vaccine for COVID-19 mRNA vaccines works by:

(A) Injecting weakened virus
(B) Introducing mRNA that encodes spike protein, triggering immune response
(C) Direct administration of antibodies
(D) Introducing entire viral genome

✅ Answer: (B)

Q56. Which structure prevents backflow of blood from ventricles to atria?

(A) Semilunar valves
(B) Atrioventricular valves (bicuspid and tricuspid)
(C) Chordae tendineae alone
(D) Papillary muscles

✅ Answer: (B) Atrioventricular valves

Q57. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection?

(A) Typhoid
(B) Gonorrhoea
(C) Malaria
(D) Dengue

✅ Answer: (B) Gonorrhoea

Q58. The first antibiotic discovered was:

(A) Streptomycin
(B) Tetracycline
(C) Penicillin
(D) Ampicillin

✅ Answer: (C) Penicillin — by Alexander Fleming

Q59. Pneumonia affects which organ?

(A) Liver
(B) Kidneys
(C) Lungs (alveoli)
(D) Heart

✅ Answer: (C) Lungs (alveoli)

Q60. The primary productivity of an ecosystem depends on:

(A) Decomposers
(B) Producers (autotrophs)
(C) Herbivores
(D) Carnivores

✅ Answer: (B) Producers

Q61. Which of the following represents the correct flow in an ecosystem?

(A) Sun → Consumers → Producers → Decomposers
(B) Sun → Producers → Consumers → Decomposers
(C) Producers → Sun → Decomposers → Consumers
(D) Decomposers → Producers → Consumers → Sun

✅ Answer: (B)

Q62. The 10% law of energy flow in ecosystems was given by:

(A) Tansley
(B) Lindeman
(C) Odum
(D) Haeckel

✅ Answer: (B) Raymond Lindeman

Q63. IUCN stands for:

(A) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(B) International Unit of Conservation Networks
(C) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
(D) Internal Union of Conservation and Nature

✅ Answer: (A)

Q64. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome number:

(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 13
(D) X

✅ Answer: (B) Chromosome 21

Q65. Which of the following is a gaseous phytohormone?

(A) Auxin
(B) Cytokinin
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) Ethylene

✅ Answer: (D) Ethylene

Q66. The 'one gene-one enzyme' hypothesis was proposed by:

(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Beadle and Tatum
(C) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(D) Hershey and Chase

✅ Answer: (B) Beadle and Tatum

Q67. The Calvin cycle occurs in the:

(A) Thylakoid membrane
(B) Outer chloroplast membrane
(C) Stroma of chloroplast
(D) Cytoplasm

✅ Answer: (C) Stroma of chloroplast

Q68. A test cross is:

(A) Cross between two dominant homozygous individuals
(B) Cross between an F₁ hybrid and a double recessive parent
(C) Cross between two F₁ individuals
(D) Cross between two heterozygous individuals

✅ Answer: (B)

Q69. The full form of PCR is:

(A) Protein Chain Reaction
(B) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(C) Phosphate Chain Replication
(D) Primary Cloning Reaction

✅ Answer: (B) Polymerase Chain Reaction

Q70. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere is mainly caused by:

(A) CO₂
(B) SO₂
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(D) Methane

✅ Answer: (C) CFCs

SECTION B — ASSERTION-REASON (10 Questions)

Q71. Assertion (A): Mitochondria is called the powerhouse of the cell. Reason (R): Mitochondria produce ATP through cellular respiration via oxidative phosphorylation.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q72. Assertion (A): DNA is the genetic material in most organisms. Reason (R): Hershey and Chase experiment proved that protein is the genetic material.

✅ Answer: (C) A is true; R is false — Hershey and Chase proved DNA, NOT protein, is genetic material

Q73. Assertion (A): Xylem transports water and minerals from roots to leaves. Reason (R): Transpiration pull creates a negative pressure that drives upward movement of water.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q74. Assertion (A): All enzymes are proteins. Reason (R): Ribozymes are RNA molecules with catalytic activity.

✅ Answer: (B) A is false (not all — ribozymes are RNA enzymes); R is true. But wait — A is actually partially false but NCERT treats enzymes as proteins. In NEET context: A is broadly true per NCERT; R is also true. R does NOT explain A. → Answer: (B) if we consider both true; or (C) if A is considered false. In strict NEET NCERT context: A is true per curriculum, R is true but doesn't explain A → (B)

Q75. Assertion (A): Cancer cells divide uncontrollably. Reason (R): Proto-oncogenes when mutated become oncogenes and lose contact inhibition.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q76. Assertion (A): Biodiversity hotspots are areas with exceptional species richness AND high threat levels. Reason (R): India has two major biodiversity hotspots — Western Ghats and Himalayan region.

✅ Answer: (B) Both are true; R is not the explanation of A — it is a separate fact

Q77. Assertion (A): Colostrum provides passive immunity to the newborn. Reason (R): Colostrum contains IgA antibodies transferred from mother to child.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q78. Assertion (A): Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases urine output. Reason (R): ADH promotes water reabsorption in collecting ducts of nephron.

✅ Answer: (D) A is false — ADH DECREASES urine output; R is true

Q79. Assertion (A): The lac operon is an example of negative regulation in prokaryotes. Reason (R): In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds the operator and blocks transcription.

✅ Answer: (A)

Q80. Assertion (A): The placenta in humans is haemochorial. Reason (R): In haemochorial placenta, maternal blood directly bathes the chorionic villi.

✅ Answer: (A)

SECTION C — CASE-BASED (10 Questions)

Case Study 1: Genetics and Inheritance

A couple has three children. The first child has blood group A, the second has blood group B, and the third has blood group O. Both parents have normal phenotype.

Q81. What are the genotypes of the parents?

(A) I^A I^A × I^B I^B
(B) I^A i × I^B i
(C) I^A I^B × ii
(D) ii × I^A I^B

✅ Answer: (B) I^A i × I^B i

Q82. What is the probability of a fourth child having blood group AB?

(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%

✅ Answer: (B) 25% I^A i × I^B i → I^A I^B (AB), I^A i (A), I^B i (B), ii (O) — each 25%

Q83. Blood group O is determined by genotype:

(A) I^A I^A
(B) I^A I^B
(C) ii
(D) I^B I^B

✅ Answer: (C) ii

Q84. The blood group system demonstrates which type of dominance?

(A) Complete dominance
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Codominance and multiple allelism
(D) Epistasis

✅ Answer: (C) Codominance and multiple allelism

Q85. If the couple's fourth child is a carrier female for haemophilia (inherited separately), her genotype for haemophilia would be:

(A) X^H X^H
(B) X^H X^h
(C) X^h X^h
(D) X^h Y

✅ Answer: (B) X^H X^h Carrier female = heterozygous for X-linked recessive gene

Case Study 2: Ecology and Environment

A limnologist studying a freshwater lake observes that algal blooms occur every summer. The blooms cause mass death of fish and other aquatic life. She measures high levels of nitrates and phosphates in the water.

Q86. The phenomenon described where excess nutrients lead to algal blooms is called:

(A) Biomagnification
(B) Eutrophication
(C) Bioremediation
(D) Succession

✅ Answer: (B) Eutrophication

Q87. The mass death of fish in the lake after the algal bloom is primarily due to:

(A) Direct toxicity from algae
(B) Increase in water temperature
(C) Depletion of dissolved oxygen (hypoxia)
(D) Increase in water pH

✅ Answer: (C) Depletion of dissolved oxygen Algal decomposition consumes O₂, causing anoxia

Q88. The main source of nitrates and phosphates in this lake would most likely be:

(A) Volcanic activity
(B) Agricultural runoff containing fertilisers
(C) Atmospheric nitrogen fixation
(D) Decomposition of rocks

✅ Answer: (B) Agricultural runoff

Q89. Biomagnification refers to:

(A) Decrease of toxin concentration in higher trophic levels
(B) Increase in toxin concentration at successive trophic levels
(C) Equal distribution of toxins in the ecosystem
(D) Decomposition of pollutants

✅ Answer: (B) Increase in toxin concentration at successive trophic levels

Q90. The species that first colonise a bare rock during primary succession are called:

(A) Climax community
(B) Pioneers (e.g., lichens)
(C) Seral community
(D) Subclimax community

✅ Answer: (B) Pioneer species (lichens)

📊 Mock Test Summary

Subject	Sections	Questions	Marks
Physics	MCQ (35) + A-R (5) + Case-based (5)	45	180
Chemistry	MCQ (35) + A-R (5) + Case-based (5)	45	180
Biology	MCQ (70) + A-R (10) + Case-based (10)	90	360
TOTAL		180	720

📌 Key Features of Each Mock

Physics: Covers Mechanics, Thermodynamics, Waves, Electrostatics, Magnetism, Optics, Modern Physics, Semiconductors (Class 11 + 12)
Chemistry: Covers Physical Chemistry (kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry), Inorganic (p,d-block, coordination), Organic (reactions, biomolecules, polymers, drugs) (Class 11 + 12)
Biology: Covers Cell Biology, Plant Physiology, Human Physiology, Genetics, Biotechnology, Ecology, Evolution (Class 11 + 12) — full NCERT syllabus

All questions are completely separate for each subject, with full answers and brief explanations. The format matches the NEET 2026 pattern (MCQ + Assertion-Reason + Case-based).

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