PHYSICS (Q1–Q50)

1. The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant is:
   A) [ML²T⁻¹]
   B) [ML²T⁻²]
   C) [MLT⁻¹]
   D) [M⁰L²T⁻¹]
2. If ( \vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}=0 ), then vectors are:
   A) Parallel
   B) Perpendicular
   C) Equal
   D) Anti-parallel
3. A body is projected vertically upward with speed 20 m/s. Maximum height (g=10 m/s²):
   A) 10 m
   B) 20 m
   C) 30 m
   D) 40 m
4. The work done in moving a charge on an equipotential surface is:
   A) Maximum
   B) Minimum
   C) Zero
   D) Infinite
5. SI unit of electric flux is:
   A) N/C
   B) V/m
   C) N m²/C
   D) C/m²
6. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases if:
   A) Plate area decreases
   B) Plate separation increases
   C) Dielectric constant increases
   D) Potential difference increases
7. Drift velocity of electrons is proportional to:
   A) 1/current
   B) Electric field
   C) Resistance
   D) Temperature only
8. Magnetic field at center of circular coil carrying current I and radius R is:
   A) (\mu_0I/2R)
   B) (\mu_0I/R)
   C) (\mu_0IR/2)
   D) (\mu_0I/4R)
9. A moving coil galvanometer is converted to ammeter by connecting:
   A) High resistance in series
   B) Low resistance in parallel
   C) High resistance in parallel
   D) Capacitor in series
10. Lenz’s law is consequence of:
    A) Conservation of charge
    B) Conservation of momentum
    C) Conservation of energy
    D) Coulomb’s law
11. RMS value of AC of peak value (V_0):
    A) (V_0)
    B) (V_0/2)
    C) (V_0/\sqrt{2})
    D) (\sqrt{2}V_0)
12. In a transformer, energy loss due to induced currents in core is reduced by:
    A) Thick core
    B) Laminated core
    C) Copper core
    D) Air core
13. For an ideal inductor, current lags voltage by:
    A) 0°
    B) 45°
    C) 90°
    D) 180°
14. Refractive index n of medium is:
    A) c/v
    B) v/c
    C) cv
    D) c+v
15. Condition for total internal reflection:
    A) Light from rarer to denser
    B) Angle < critical
    C) Light from denser to rarer and angle > critical
    D) Any angle in vacuum
16. Magnifying power of simple microscope (normal adjustment) is:
    A) (D/f)
    B) (1+D/f)
    C) (f/D)
    D) (1+f/D)
17. In Young’s double slit experiment, fringe width is proportional to:
    A) d
    B) 1/D
    C) λ
    D) 1/λ
18. Polarization proves light is:
    A) Longitudinal
    B) Transverse
    C) Mechanical
    D) Scalar
19. Einstein’s photoelectric equation:
    A) (h\nu=\phi+K_{max})
    B) (h\nu=\phi-K_{max})
    C) (K_{max}=\phi-h\nu)
    D) (h\nu=\phi)
20. De-Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to:
    A) Charge
    B) Momentum
    C) Potential
    D) Frequency
21. Radius of nth Bohr orbit is proportional to:
    A) n
    B) (n^2)
    C) (1/n)
    D) (\sqrt n)
22. Half-life of radioactive element is 10 days. Decay constant is:
    A) 0.0693 day⁻¹
    B) 0.693 day⁻¹
    C) 6.93 day⁻¹
    D) 0.00693 day⁻¹
23. Binding energy per nucleon is highest for:
    A) Uranium
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Iron
    D) Helium
24. In forward biasing of p-n junction:
    A) Barrier increases
    B) Barrier decreases
    C) No current
    D) Breakdown occurs always
25. NAND gate is called:
    A) Basic gate
    B) Universal gate
    C) Buffer gate
    D) Exclusive gate
26. If force is (F=3x^2), potential energy is proportional to:
    A) (x^2)
    B) (x^3)
    C) (x^4)
    D) (1/x)
27. Unit of surface tension is:
    A) N m
    B) N/m
    C) N/m²
    D) J/m
28. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on conservation of:
    A) Mass
    B) Angular momentum
    C) Energy
    D) Charge
29. Young’s modulus is ratio of:
    A) Stress/strain
    B) Strain/stress
    C) Force/area
    D) Area/force
30. Escape velocity from Earth depends on:
    A) Mass of body
    B) Radius and mass of Earth
    C) Velocity of rotation only
    D) Density of body
31. Moment of inertia of ring about central axis is:
    A) (MR^2)
    B) (MR^2/2)
    C) (2MR^2)
    D) (M/R^2)
32. Equation of SHM is (a=-\omega^2x), meaning acceleration is:
    A) Constant
    B) In phase with displacement
    C) Opposite to displacement
    D) Zero at extremes
33. For a wave, relation between speed, frequency and wavelength:
    A) (v=f/\lambda)
    B) (v=f\lambda)
    C) (v=\lambda/f)
    D) (v=f^2\lambda)
34. Doppler effect occurs due to:
    A) Change in amplitude
    B) Relative motion between source and observer
    C) Reflection only
    D) Interference only
35. First law of thermodynamics is:
    A) (Q=\Delta U-W)
    B) (Q=\Delta U+W)
    C) (\Delta U=0)
    D) (Q=W)
36. Efficiency of Carnot engine operating between (T_1) and (T_2):
    A) (1-\frac{T_1}{T_2})
    B) (1-\frac{T_2}{T_1})
    C) (\frac{T_2}{T_1})
    D) (\frac{T_1-T_2}{T_2})
37. Degree of freedom of monoatomic gas:
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 5
    D) 6
38. Specific heat at constant pressure is greater than constant volume because:
    A) Pressure decreases
    B) Work is done during expansion
    C) Mass changes
    D) No reason
39. Equation (PV=nRT) is exact for:
    A) Real gas at high pressure
    B) Ideal gas
    C) Vapours only
    D) Liquids
40. Viscosity of liquids generally with temperature:
    A) Increases
    B) Decreases
    C) Constant
    D) First decreases then increases
41. Coulomb’s law follows inverse square law due to:
    A) 1D geometry
    B) 2D geometry
    C) 3D space
    D) 4D effect
42. Torque is product of:
    A) Force and velocity
    B) Force and perpendicular distance
    C) Momentum and distance
    D) Work and time
43. Center of mass of two equal masses at x=+a and x=-a is at:
    A) +a
    B) -a
    C) 0
    D) 2a
44. If net external force is zero, linear momentum:
    A) Increases
    B) Decreases
    C) Conserved
    D) Zero always
45. Coefficient of restitution e for perfectly elastic collision:
    A) 0
    B) 0.5
    C) 1
    D) >1
46. Power of lens of focal length 50 cm:
    A) 0.5 D
    B) 1 D
    C) 2 D
    D) 5 D
47. In convex mirror, image is always:
    A) Real and inverted
    B) Virtual and erect
    C) Real and erect
    D) Virtual and inverted
48. Combination of two resistors 3Ω and 6Ω in parallel gives:
    A) 9Ω
    B) 2Ω
    C) 4Ω
    D) 18Ω
49. Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic material is:
    A) Large positive
    B) Small positive
    C) Negative
    D) Zero always
50. Logic output of XOR gate is 1 when inputs are:
    A) Both 0
    B) Both 1
    C) Different
    D) Same

CHEMISTRY (Q51–Q100)

1. Atomic number represents number of:
   A) Neutrons
   B) Protons
   C) Nucleons
   D) Isotopes
2. For hydrogen atom, energy of nth orbit is proportional to:
   A) n
   B) (1/n)
   C) (1/n^2)
   D) (n^2)
3. Maximum electrons in p-subshell:
   A) 2
   B) 6
   C) 10
   D) 14
4. Hybridization in methane:
   A) sp
   B) sp²
   C) sp³
   D) dsp²
5. Shape of BF₃ molecule:
   A) Tetrahedral
   B) Trigonal planar
   C) Pyramidal
   D) Bent
6. Bond order of O₂ is:
   A) 1
   B) 1.5
   C) 2
   D) 2.5
7. The strongest intermolecular force is:
   A) London force
   B) Dipole-dipole
   C) Hydrogen bond
   D) Ion-dipole
8. Molarity unit is:
   A) mol kg⁻¹
   B) mol L⁻¹
   C) g L⁻¹
   D) eq L⁻¹
9. Van’t Hoff factor (i) for NaCl (ideal dissociation):
   A) 1
   B) 2
   C) 3
   D) 0.5
10. Rate law for first order reaction:
    A) Rate = k[A]²
    B) Rate = k
    C) Rate = k[A]
    D) Rate = k[A][B]
11. Unit of first order rate constant:
    A) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
    B) s⁻¹
    C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
    D) mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
12. Catalyst works by:
    A) Increasing ΔH
    B) Lowering activation energy
    C) Changing equilibrium constant
    D) Consuming reactants
13. pH of neutral water at 25°C:
    A) 0
    B) 7
    C) 14
    D) 1
14. Henderson equation applies to:
    A) Strong acid
    B) Buffer solution
    C) Salt hydrolysis only
    D) Pure water
15. Oxidation number of Cr in (K_2Cr_2O_7):
    A) +3
    B) +4
    C) +6
    D) +7
16. Equivalent weight of (H_2SO_4) in acid-base reaction:
    A) 98
    B) 49
    C) 32
    D) 18
17. In electrochemical cell, oxidation occurs at:
    A) Cathode
    B) Anode
    C) Salt bridge
    D) Electrolyte only
18. Standard electrode potential of SHE is:
    A) 1 V
    B) 0 V
    C) -1 V
    D) 0.5 V
19. Corrosion of iron is an example of:
    A) Reduction
    B) Redox process
    C) Neutralization
    D) Displacement only
20. Strongest reducing alkali metal in aqueous solution:
    A) Li
    B) Na
    C) K
    D) Cs
21. Anomalous behavior of Li is due to:
    A) Large size
    B) High electronegativity only
    C) Small size and high polarizing power
    D) Low ionization enthalpy
22. Most reactive halogen:
    A) Cl₂
    B) Br₂
    C) I₂
    D) F₂
23. Bleaching action of chlorine is due to:
    A) Reduction
    B) Oxidation
    C) Hydrolysis only
    D) Addition
24. Ores concentrated by froth flotation are mainly:
    A) Oxide ores
    B) Sulphide ores
    C) Carbonate ores
    D) Halide ores
25. Pig iron contains high percentage of:
    A) Cu
    B) C
    C) Zn
    D) Ag
26. Lanthanoid contraction is due to poor shielding by:
    A) 1s electrons
    B) d electrons
    C) f electrons
    D) p electrons
27. Transition metals show variable oxidation states due to:
    A) Inert pair effect
    B) Similar energies of ns and (n-1)d orbitals
    C) Large size only
    D) High density
28. IUPAC name of (CH_3-CH_2-O-CH_3):
    A) Ethoxy methane
    B) Methoxy ethane
    C) Dimethyl ether
    D) Propoxy methane
29. Functional group in aldehydes:
    A) -COOH
    B) -CHO
    C) >C=O
    D) -OH
30. Tollen’s reagent test is for:
    A) Alcohols
    B) Aldehydes
    C) Ketones
    D) Carboxylic acids
31. Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in presence of conc. (H_2SO_4) to give:
    A) Ether
    B) Ester
    C) Aldehyde
    D) Ketone
32. Most acidic among following:
    A) Phenol
    B) Ethanol
    C) Water
    D) Methanol
33. Benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition due to:
    A) Instability
    B) Aromatic stabilization
    C) Non-planarity
    D) Presence of sp³ carbon
34. Nitration of benzene uses mixture of:
    A) HCl + HNO₃
    B) HNO₃ + H₂SO₄
    C) HNO₃ + H₃PO₄
    D) HNO₂ + H₂SO₄
35. Aniline is:
    A) Primary amine
    B) Secondary amine
    C) Tertiary amine
    D) Amide
36. Diazonium salts are prepared at temperature:
    A) 50°C
    B) 25°C
    C) 0–5°C
    D) 100°C
37. Glucose is:
    A) Ketose
    B) Aldohexose
    C) Aldopentose
    D) Disaccharide
38. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
    A) Glucose + glucose
    B) Glucose + fructose
    C) Fructose + fructose
    D) Galactose + glucose
39. Protein linkage is:
    A) Glycosidic
    B) Peptide
    C) Phosphodiester
    D) Hydrogen
40. Enzymes are chemically:
    A) Carbohydrates
    B) Lipids
    C) Proteins
    D) Nucleic acids
41. PVC is polymer of:
    A) Ethene
    B) Styrene
    C) Vinyl chloride
    D) Tetrafluoroethene
42. Nylon-6,6 is condensation polymer of:
    A) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
    B) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
    C) Caprolactam only
    D) Phenol and formaldehyde
43. Drug used as analgesic-antipyretic:
    A) Aspirin
    B) Chloramphenicol
    C) Penicillin
    D) Sulphadiazine
44. Soaps are sodium/potassium salts of:
    A) Mineral acids
    B) Fatty acids
    C) Amino acids
    D) Aromatic acids
45. Detergents work well in hard water because they:
    A) Form insoluble salts
    B) Do not form insoluble precipitates with Ca²⁺/Mg²⁺
    C) Are acidic
    D) Are hydrocarbons
46. Colligative properties depend on:
    A) Nature of solute
    B) Number of solute particles
    C) Temperature only
    D) Solvent polarity only
47. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, adsorption is:
    A) Independent of pressure
    B) Proportional to pressure always
    C) Related to pressure by empirical relation
    D) Zero at high pressure
48. Lyophilic sols are:
    A) Irreversible
    B) Unstable
    C) Solvent-loving and stable
    D) Charged only
49. Gold number measures:
    A) Purity of gold
    B) Protective power of lyophilic colloid
    C) Particle size
    D) Conductivity
50. Hardness of water is mainly due to salts of:
    A) Na and K
    B) Ca and Mg
    C) Fe and Zn
    D) Al and Pb

BIOLOGY (Q101–Q200)

1. Cell theory was proposed by:
   A) Darwin and Wallace
   B) Schleiden and Schwann
   C) Watson and Crick
   D) Mendel and Morgan
2. Powerhouse of cell:
   A) Ribosome
   B) Mitochondrion
   C) Golgi body
   D) Lysosome
3. Fluid mosaic model given by:
   A) Singer and Nicolson
   B) Watson and Crick
   C) Hooke and Leeuwenhoek
   D) Beadle and Tatum
4. DNA replication is:
   A) Conservative
   B) Semi-conservative
   C) Dispersive
   D) Random
5. Unit of heredity is:
   A) Chromosome
   B) Gene
   C) DNA only
   D) Nucleotide
6. Monohybrid phenotypic ratio in F₂:
   A) 1:2:1
   B) 3:1
   C) 9:3:3:1
   D) 2:1
7. Universal donor blood group:
   A) A
   B) B
   C) AB
   D) O
8. Universal recipient blood group:
   A) O
   B) AB
   C) A
   D) B
9. RNA has sugar:
   A) Deoxyribose
   B) Ribose
   C) Glucose
   D) Fructose
10. Codon is present on:
    A) tRNA
    B) rRNA
    C) mRNA
    D) DNA polymerase
11. Anticodon is present on:
    A) mRNA
    B) tRNA
    C) rRNA
    D) DNA
12. Enzyme used in PCR:
    A) DNA ligase
    B) Taq polymerase
    C) Restriction enzyme
    D) RNase
13. Bt toxin gene is isolated from:
    A) E. coli
    B) Bacillus thuringiensis
    C) Agrobacterium
    D) Rhizobium
14. AIDS is caused by:
    A) HBV
    B) HIV
    C) HTLV
    D) TMV
15. Insulin-producing β-cells are in:
    A) Liver
    B) Pancreatic islets
    C) Thyroid
    D) Adrenal
16. Thyroxine is secreted by:
    A) Pituitary
    B) Thyroid
    C) Parathyroid
    D) Adrenal medulla
17. Functional unit of kidney:
    A) Neuron
    B) Nephron
    C) Alveolus
    D) Villus
18. Urea is formed in:
    A) Kidney
    B) Liver
    C) Pancreas
    D) Spleen
19. Normal human chromosome number is:
    A) 44
    B) 46
    C) 48
    D) 23
20. Down syndrome is trisomy of chromosome:
    A) 18
    B) 21
    C) 13
    D) X
21. Crossing over occurs during:
    A) Pachytene
    B) Leptotene
    C) Zygotene
    D) Diplotene
22. Mitosis results in:
    A) Variation
    B) Reduction in chromosome number
    C) Two identical daughter cells
    D) Four haploid cells
23. Site of photosynthesis:
    A) Mitochondria
    B) Chloroplast
    C) Nucleus
    D) Golgi body
24. Photolysis of water occurs in:
    A) Stroma
    B) PS-II
    C) PS-I
    D) Cytoplasm
25. C₄ plants first stable product:
    A) PGA
    B) OAA
    C) RuBP
    D) PEP
26. Kreb’s cycle occurs in:
    A) Cytoplasm
    B) Mitochondrial matrix
    C) Nucleus
    D) Ribosome
27. Glycolysis occurs in:
    A) Cytoplasm
    B) Mitochondria
    C) Chloroplast
    D) Nucleus
28. Respiratory quotient for carbohydrate is:
    A) 0.7
    B) 1.0
    C) 1.5
    D) 0.5
29. Nitrogen fixation in legume nodules by:
    A) Nitrosomonas
    B) Rhizobium
    C) Nitrobacter
    D) Azotobacter only free
30. Plant hormone promoting cell division:
    A) Auxin
    B) Cytokinin
    C) ABA
    D) Ethylene
31. Hormone causing stomatal closure:
    A) GA
    B) ABA
    C) IAA
    D) Cytokinin
32. Vernalization is related to:
    A) Light period
    B) Low temperature treatment
    C) High temperature
    D) Water stress
33. Double fertilization is characteristic of:
    A) Gymnosperms
    B) Angiosperms
    C) Pteridophytes
    D) Bryophytes
34. Embryo sac is usually:
    A) 4-nucleate
    B) 8-nucleate, 7-celled
    C) 16-nucleate
    D) 2-nucleate
35. Pollen grains are produced in:
    A) Ovule
    B) Anther
    C) Stigma
    D) Style
36. Heart has total chambers in humans:
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
37. Oxygen is transported mainly as:
    A) Dissolved in plasma
    B) Oxyhaemoglobin
    C) Carbaminohaemoglobin
    D) Bicarbonate
38. WBCs responsible for antibody production:
    A) Neutrophils
    B) Lymphocytes (B-cells)
    C) Eosinophils
    D) Basophils
39. SA node is natural:
    A) Valve
    B) Pacemaker
    C) Pump
    D) Filter
40. Largest artery is:
    A) Pulmonary artery
    B) Aorta
    C) Vena cava
    D) Coronary artery
41. Cartilage covering of trachea is:
    A) Spiral
    B) C-shaped rings
    C) Complete rings
    D) Plates
42. Emphysema affects:
    A) Nephrons
    B) Alveolar walls
    C) Liver cells
    D) RBC
43. Hormone regulating blood calcium:
    A) Thyroxine
    B) PTH
    C) Insulin
    D) ADH
44. ADH acts mainly on:
    A) PCT
    B) DCT and collecting duct
    C) Loop of Henle descending
    D) Bowman’s capsule
45. Deficiency of iodine causes:
    A) Diabetes
    B) Goitre
    C) Scurvy
    D) Rickets
46. Vitamin C deficiency causes:
    A) Night blindness
    B) Scurvy
    C) Beriberi
    D) Pellagra
47. Main excretory product of mammals:
    A) Ammonia
    B) Urea
    C) Uric acid
    D) Creatinine only
48. Reflex action is controlled by:
    A) Cerebrum
    B) Spinal cord
    C) Cerebellum
    D) Hypothalamus
49. Myelin sheath in PNS formed by:
    A) Oligodendrocytes
    B) Schwann cells
    C) Astrocytes
    D) Microglia
50. Synapse transmits impulse via:
    A) Hormones
    B) Neurotransmitters
    C) Enzymes
    D) Ions only
51. Darwin proposed theory of:
    A) Mutation
    B) Natural selection
    C) Inheritance of acquired traits
    D) Germplasm
52. Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes:
    A) Small population
    B) No mutation, migration, selection, drift
    C) Natural selection present
    D) Random mutation only
53. Founder effect is a type of:
    A) Gene flow
    B) Genetic drift
    C) Mutation
    D) Recombination
54. Homologous organs indicate:
    A) Convergent evolution
    B) Divergent evolution
    C) No evolution
    D) Mutation only
55. Analogous organs indicate:
    A) Divergent evolution
    B) Convergent evolution
    C) Parallel evolution only
    D) Adaptive radiation only
56. Five kingdom classification proposed by:
    A) Linnaeus
    B) Whittaker
    C) Haeckel
    D) Copeland
57. Virus has:
    A) Cellular organization
    B) DNA and RNA both
    C) Nucleic acid + protein coat
    D) Cell wall
58. Bacteria reproduces mainly by:
    A) Binary fission
    B) Budding
    C) Fragmentation
    D) Spore formation only
59. Diatoms have cell wall with:
    A) Cellulose
    B) Silica
    C) Chitin
    D) Peptidoglycan
60. Slime moulds belong to kingdom:
    A) Monera
    B) Protista
    C) Fungi
    D) Plantae
61. Fungal cell wall is made of:
    A) Cellulose
    B) Chitin
    C) Peptidoglycan
    D) Lignin
62. Bryophytes are called:
    A) Vascular plants
    B) Amphibians of plant kingdom
    C) Seed plants
    D) Flowering plants
63. Pteridophytes reproduce by:
    A) Seeds
    B) Spores
    C) Fruits
    D) Flowers
64. Gymnosperm seeds are:
    A) Covered
    B) Naked
    C) Absent
    D) Inside fruit
65. Angiosperms differ by having:
    A) Roots only
    B) Flowers and fruits
    C) Spores only
    D) Cones
66. Human female gamete is:
    A) Spermatocyte
    B) Ovum
    C) Polar body
    D) Oogonium
67. LH surge causes:
    A) Menstruation
    B) Ovulation
    C) Implantation
    D) Fertilization
68. Site of fertilization in humans:
    A) Uterus
    B) Vagina
    C) Ampulla of fallopian tube
    D) Cervix
69. Placenta formed by tissues of:
    A) Mother only
    B) Fetus only
    C) Both mother and fetus
    D) Endometrium only
70. Lactational amenorrhea is a method of:
    A) ART
    B) Natural contraception
    C) Barrier method
    D) Surgical method
71. Copper-T prevents pregnancy by:
    A) Preventing ovulation
    B) Preventing implantation and reducing sperm motility
    C) Killing embryo
    D) Blocking cervix physically only
72. Test tube baby technique is:
    A) IUI
    B) IVF-ET
    C) GIFT only
    D) ZIFT only
73. Genetic disorder due to single gene mutation:
    A) Down syndrome
    B) Haemophilia
    C) Klinefelter syndrome
    D) Turner syndrome
74. Sickle cell anemia is caused by substitution in:
    A) α-globin gene
    B) β-globin gene
    C) rRNA gene
    D) tRNA gene
75. Human Genome Project aimed to identify:
    A) All proteins
    B) Entire human DNA sequence
    C) All diseases
    D) All RNA
76. Restriction enzymes are:
    A) Molecular scissors
    B) Molecular glue
    C) Vectors
    D) Probes
77. Vector commonly used in genetic engineering:
    A) Plasmid
    B) Ribosome
    C) Centriole
    D) Lysosome
78. Bioreactors are used for:
    A) Photosynthesis
    B) Large scale culture/production
    C) Digestion
    D) Storage only
79. Transgenic plants can be made resistant to:
    A) Herbivory and pests
    B) Gravity
    C) Sunlight
    D) Water
80. Bt cotton is resistant to:
    A) Nematodes only
    B) Bollworm
    C) All insects
    D) Fungi only
81. Study of interaction of organisms with environment:
    A) Genetics
    B) Ecology
    C) Taxonomy
    D) Morphology
82. Pyramid of energy is always:
    A) Inverted
    B) Upright
    C) Spindle
    D) Random
83. 10% law given by:
    A) Lindeman
    B) Odum
    C) Elton
    D) Darwin
84. Secondary consumers are mainly:
    A) Producers
    B) Herbivores
    C) Carnivores feeding on herbivores
    D) Decomposers
85. Biome with highest productivity among natural ecosystems:
    A) Desert
    B) Tundra
    C) Tropical rainforest
    D) Grassland
86. Ozone depletion mainly due to:
    A) CO₂
    B) CFCs
    C) SO₂
    D) NO₂ only
87. Greenhouse gas with highest contribution:
    A) CO₂
    B) O₂
    C) N₂
    D) He
88. Eutrophication occurs due to excess:
    A) Oxygen
    B) Nutrients in water
    C) Salt
    D) Sand
89. Biodiversity hotspot means region with:
    A) Low species
    B) High endemism and high threat
    C) No threat
    D) Marine only
90. In situ conservation example:
    A) Zoo
    B) Botanical garden
    C) National park
    D) Seed bank
91. Ex situ conservation example:
    A) Wildlife sanctuary
    B) Biosphere reserve
    C) Seed bank
    D) National park
92. Cryopreservation is preservation at:
    A) 0°C
    B) -20°C
    C) Very low temperature using liquid nitrogen
    D) 100°C
93. Tissue culture based clonal propagation is:
    A) Micropropagation
    B) Hybridization
    C) Mutation breeding
    D) Selection
94. Somatic hybridization involves fusion of:
    A) Gametes
    B) Protoplasts
    C) Seeds
    D) Embryos only
95. Biofertilizer example:
    A) Urea
    B) Rhizobium
    C) DAP
    D) SSP
96. Biogas mainly contains:
    A) Methane
    B) Ethane
    C) Propane
    D) Butane
97. Activated sludge process involves:
    A) Primary treatment only
    B) Secondary biological treatment
    C) Tertiary chlorination only
    D) Distillation
98. Primary treatment of sewage includes:
    A) Microbial oxidation
    B) Physical removal of large/small particles
    C) Chlorination
    D) Sludge digestion
99. ELISA is used for:
    A) DNA sequencing
    B) Detection of antigen-antibody reaction
    C) Protein synthesis
    D) Gene cloning
100. Vaccine provides:
     A) Passive immunity always
     B) Active immunity (usually)
     C) No immunity
     D) Artificial blood

ANSWER KEY

1. a second mock paper (Set B) with completely new questions,
2. a printable OMR sheet,
3. chapter-wise performance tracker format.