Here are 20 MCQs on Acute Lymphoid Leukaemia (ALL), with answers and explanations of the wrong options clearly separated.
MCQs on Acute Lymphoid Leukaemia (ALL)
Q1. ALL is most commonly seen in which age group?
A) Neonates (< 1 month)
B) Children aged 3-4 years
C) Middle-aged adults (40-50 years)
D) Elderly (> 70 years)
✅ Answer: B) Children aged 3-4 years
❌ A - Neonates: Neonatal ALL is extremely rare. Infants < 1 year actually carry a poor prognosis when ALL does occur (KMT2A rearrangements common), but this is not the peak incidence age.
❌ C - Middle-aged adults: ALL incidence actually decreases through adulthood (30s-50s). It is predominantly a childhood disease.
❌ D - Elderly: While incidence rises again slightly in the elderly (and Ph+ ALL predominates there), the peak incidence is firmly in early childhood at 3-4 years.
Q2. Which of the following is the most common type of ALL?
A) T-cell ALL
B) Mature B-cell ALL (Burkitt type)
C) B-cell precursor ALL
D) Early T-cell precursor (ETP-ALL)
✅ Answer: C) B-cell precursor ALL
❌ A - T-cell ALL: T-ALL accounts for only ~15-25% of all ALL cases. It predominates in adolescent males and often presents as a thymic mass.
❌ B - Mature B-cell (Burkitt) ALL: This is the least common subtype, comprising only 3-5% of adult ALL and characterised by surface IgM expression and t(8;14).
❌ D - ETP-ALL: This is a specific high-risk subtype of T-ALL and represents a minority of ALL overall. It carries a poor prognosis.
Q3. The Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL1) in ALL produces which fusion protein?
A) 210 kD (same as CML)
B) 190 kD (smaller than in CML)
C) 230 kD (larger than in CML)
D) 170 kD
✅ Answer: B) 190 kD (smaller than in CML)
❌ A - 210 kD: This is the fusion protein size characteristic of CML, not ALL. The difference in BCR breakpoint determines the protein size - ALL uses a more upstream breakpoint (minor BCR breakpoint), producing the smaller p190 protein.
❌ C - 230 kD: The p230 protein is associated with chronic neutrophilic leukaemia, an extremely rare CML variant.
❌ D - 170 kD: This is not a recognised BCR-ABL1 fusion protein size in either ALL or CML.
Q4. Which cytogenetic finding in childhood B-ALL carries the BEST prognosis?
A) Hypodiploidy (< 44 chromosomes)
B) t(4;11) KMT2A rearrangement
C) t(12;21) ETV6-RUNX1 fusion
D) t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome
✅ Answer: C) t(12;21) ETV6-RUNX1 fusion
❌ A - Hypodiploidy: This is associated with a poor prognosis in B-ALL. Fewer chromosomes correlates with worse outcomes, in contrast to hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes), which is favourable.
❌ B - t(4;11): KMT2A-AF4 rearrangement is found in ~7% of adult ALL and carries a poor prognosis. It is also the hallmark of infant ALL (< 1 year), which has the worst outcome.
❌ D - t(9;22): The Philadelphia chromosome confers a poor prognosis when treated with chemotherapy alone. It has improved dramatically with TKI addition, but is still considered high-risk.
Q5. Which of the following is the hallmark surface antigen of "common ALL" (CALLA)?
A) CD7
B) CD10
C) CD20
D) CD3
✅ Answer: B) CD10
❌ A - CD7: CD7 is a T-cell antigen. All T-ALL cases express CD7. It is not a marker of common (B-precursor) ALL.
❌ C - CD20: CD20 is expressed in only 30-40% of B-precursor ALL and 86-100% of Burkitt/mature B-ALL. It is not the defining marker of common ALL. Its presence is important because it makes rituximab applicable.
❌ D - CD3: CD3 (surface or cytoplasmic) is the definitive T-cell marker. Surface CD3 defines mature T-ALL. It has no role in identifying B-lineage ALL.
Q6. T-ALL most commonly presents in which demographic?
A) Female infants under 1 year
B) Elderly women over 65 years
C) Adolescent males
D) Middle-aged females
✅ Answer: C) Adolescent males
❌ A - Female infants: Infant ALL is almost exclusively B-ALL with KMT2A rearrangements. T-ALL in infants is rare. There is no female predominance in T-ALL.
❌ B - Elderly women: The elderly ALL surge is predominantly Ph+ B-lineage ALL, not T-ALL. T-ALL incidence is highest in adolescence when the thymus is at maximum size.
❌ D - Middle-aged females: T-ALL has no female predominance and does not peak in middle age. Its peak mirrors the thymus's maximum functional size, which is in adolescence.
Q7. A patient with T-ALL presents with breathlessness and facial oedema. What is the most likely finding on chest imaging?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Anterior mediastinal mass
C) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
D) Consolidation in the right lower lobe
✅ Answer: B) Anterior mediastinal mass
❌ A - Pleural effusion: While pleural effusions can occur secondary to a mediastinal mass in T-ALL (SVC obstruction, lymphatic obstruction), the primary and most characteristic finding is the thymic/mediastinal mass itself.
❌ C - Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy: This pattern is classic for sarcoidosis or lymphoma (especially Hodgkin disease). T-ALL characteristically produces an anterior mediastinal mass from thymic origin.
❌ D - Right lower lobe consolidation: This is a pattern of infection or aspiration pneumonia - unrelated to ALL infiltration. T-ALL does not preferentially involve pulmonary parenchyma.
Q8. Which mutation is found in 50-70% of T-ALL cases?
A) BCR-ABL1
B) KMT2A rearrangement
C) NOTCH1 mutation
D) MYC translocation
✅ Answer: C) NOTCH1 mutation
❌ A - BCR-ABL1: This is the hallmark of Ph+ ALL, which is overwhelmingly a B-cell ALL finding. BCR-ABL1 is found in T-ALL only very rarely.
❌ B - KMT2A rearrangement: KMT2A (MLL) rearrangements are most common in infant B-ALL and adult ALL with t(4;11). They are not characteristic of T-ALL.
❌ D - MYC translocation t(8;14): MYC translocations are the hallmark of Burkitt lymphoma/leukaemia (mature B-ALL). They are not typical of T-ALL.
Q9. Complete remission (CR) is achieved after induction chemotherapy in what percentage of adults with ALL?
A) 40-50%
B) 60-70%
C) 80-90%
D) 95-100%
✅ Answer: C) 80-90%
❌ A - 40-50%: This figure would represent a very poor induction response, seen only in heavily pre-treated relapsed/refractory disease or highly resistant subtypes. Standard induction achieves far higher CR rates.
❌ B - 60-70%: This underestimates the efficacy of modern induction regimens. Even older regimens achieved >75% CR rates in adults.
❌ D - 95-100%: This is closer to the paediatric CR rate (~90%+) or the remarkable CR rate seen with blinatumomab + dasatinib in Ph+ ALL (98%). For adults overall, 80-90% is the correct figure.
Q10. Which of the following is the standard maintenance regimen in ALL?
A) Cyclophosphamide + doxorubicin for 6 months
B) 6-mercaptopurine (daily) + methotrexate (weekly)
C) High-dose cytarabine for 2 years
D) Imatinib monotherapy for 1 year
✅ Answer: B) 6-mercaptopurine (daily) + methotrexate (weekly)
❌ A - Cyclophosphamide + doxorubicin: These are induction/consolidation agents, not maintenance agents. Their toxicity profile (myelosuppression, cardiotoxicity) makes them unsuitable for prolonged low-dose outpatient use.
❌ C - High-dose cytarabine for 2 years: High-dose cytarabine is used in consolidation cycles. Prolonged high-dose cytarabine is neither safe nor practical as maintenance due to serious neurotoxicity and myelosuppression.
❌ D - Imatinib monotherapy for 1 year: A TKI is added to maintenance in Ph+ ALL specifically, but it is given alongside 6-MP/methotrexate, not as monotherapy. Duration is 2-2.5 years, not 1 year.
Q11. "Ph-like ALL" is important to recognise because:
A) It is cured by standard chemotherapy alone
B) It has kinase-activating mutations targetable by TKIs
C) It exclusively affects children under 5 years
D) It carries a favourable prognosis
✅ Answer: B) It has kinase-activating mutations targetable by TKIs
❌ A - Cured by standard chemotherapy alone: Ph-like ALL actually has a poor response to standard chemotherapy - this is precisely why recognising it matters. These patients need additional targeted therapy.
❌ C - Exclusively affects children under 5: Ph-like ALL accounts for 20-25% of adult ALL and is actually more common with increasing age. It is not confined to young children.
❌ D - Favourable prognosis: Ph-like ALL carries a poor prognosis when treated with chemotherapy alone. It was first identified as an unexplained poor-outcome group among BCR-ABL1-negative ALL.
Q12. Which of the following is the correct definition of CNS involvement in ALL?
A) Any headache in a patient with ALL
B) ≥5 cells/μL or leukemic blasts on CSF morphology
C) Cranial nerve palsy alone
D) Brain MRI showing leptomeningeal enhancement
✅ Answer: B) ≥5 cells/μL or leukemic blasts on CSF morphology
❌ A - Any headache: Headache is a symptom suggestive of CNS involvement but is completely non-specific. It can result from anaemia, infection, or other causes. Diagnosis requires CSF analysis.
❌ C - Cranial nerve palsy alone: While cranial nerve palsies can occur with CNS leukaemia, the formal diagnostic criterion is CSF-based (cell count + morphology), not clinical signs alone.
❌ D - MRI enhancement alone: MRI findings can support the diagnosis but the standard diagnostic definition used in ALL trials is the CSF criterion (≥5 WBC/μL or leukemic blasts on cytospin). MRI is not the defining criterion.
Q13. Blinatumomab works by:
A) Inhibiting BCR-ABL1 kinase activity
B) Linking CD3 on T cells to CD19 on B-ALL blasts
C) Delivering a cytotoxin to CD22+ cells
D) Blocking PD-1 checkpoint signalling
✅ Answer: B) Linking CD3 on T cells to CD19 on B-ALL blasts
❌ A - Inhibiting BCR-ABL1 kinase: This is the mechanism of TKIs (imatinib, dasatinib, ponatinib). Blinatumomab is a bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody, not a kinase inhibitor.
❌ C - Delivering a cytotoxin to CD22+ cells: This describes inotuzumab ozogamicin, a CD22-targeted antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) that delivers calicheamicin to CD22+ blasts. Blinatumomab does not carry a cytotoxic payload.
❌ D - Blocking PD-1: PD-1 inhibitors (pembrolizumab, nivolumab) are checkpoint inhibitors. Blinatumomab is a bispecific antibody that activates the patient's own T cells to kill CD19+ leukemic blasts - a different mechanism entirely.
Q14. Which congenital syndrome carries a 20-fold increased risk of developing leukaemia?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Marfan syndrome
C) Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
D) Noonan syndrome
✅ Answer: C) Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
❌ A - Turner syndrome (45,X): Turner syndrome is associated with cardiovascular malformations and gonadal dysgenesis but does NOT carry a significantly elevated leukaemia risk compared to the general population.
❌ B - Marfan syndrome: Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disorder caused by FBN1 mutations. It is not associated with increased leukaemia risk. It carries risks of aortic dissection and lens dislocation.
❌ D - Noonan syndrome: Noonan syndrome (RAS pathway mutations) carries a modestly increased risk of juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia (JMML), but NOT a 20-fold increased ALL risk. The 20-fold figure is specific to Down syndrome.
Q15. Which of the following best describes the duration of maintenance therapy in ALL (non-Burkitt)?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2-2.5 years
D) 5 years
✅ Answer: C) 2-2.5 years
❌ A - 6 months: This is specifically the maintenance duration for Burkitt leukaemia (mature B-ALL), which requires only a short intensive course. It is not correct for standard B-ALL or T-ALL.
❌ B - 1 year: One year is insufficient to prevent relapse in standard ALL. Studies consistently show that 2-2.5 years of maintenance significantly reduces relapse rates compared to shorter durations.
❌ D - 5 years: Five-year maintenance was used in historical protocols and is excessive. Modern trials established that 2-2.5 years is optimal - longer duration adds toxicity (growth retardation, hepatotoxicity, infections) without additional benefit.
Q16. Bone pain in a child with ALL is caused by:
A) Pathological fractures through lytic lesions
B) Leukemic infiltration of the periosteum or expansion of the medullary cavity
C) Avascular necrosis from steroid use
D) Vitamin D deficiency from poor nutrition
✅ Answer: B) Leukemic infiltration of the periosteum or expansion of the medullary cavity
❌ A - Pathological fractures: While osteopenia and fractures can complicate ALL (especially with steroid therapy), the initial presenting bone pain is caused by leukemic infiltration and marrow expansion, not pathological fracture. Fractures are a complication, not the primary cause of bone pain.
❌ C - Avascular necrosis (AVN) from steroids: AVN is a recognised treatment complication of high-dose corticosteroids. However, bone pain at initial presentation - before any therapy has begun - cannot be attributed to steroid use.
❌ D - Vitamin D deficiency: ALL-associated bone pain is mechanical/infiltrative, not metabolic. Vitamin D deficiency causes osteomalacia, which has a very different clinical picture (proximal muscle weakness, diffuse bony tenderness, Looser's zones on X-ray).
Q17. In the induction regimen for ALL, what is the role of L-asparaginase?
A) It alkylates DNA to prevent blast cell replication
B) It depletes asparagine, which leukemic blasts cannot synthesise independently
C) It inhibits topoisomerase II, causing DNA strand breaks
D) It crosses the blood-brain barrier to treat CNS disease
✅ Answer: B) It depletes asparagine, which leukemic blasts cannot synthesise independently
❌ A - Alkylation of DNA: DNA alkylation is the mechanism of cyclophosphamide and other alkylating agents. L-asparaginase is an enzyme, not an alkylating agent - it works by substrate depletion, not DNA damage.
❌ C - Topoisomerase II inhibition: This is the mechanism of doxorubicin/daunorubicin (anthracyclines) and etoposide. L-asparaginase does not interact with topoisomerase.
❌ D - CNS penetration: L-asparaginase does NOT cross the blood-brain barrier. This is precisely why dedicated CNS prophylaxis (intrathecal methotrexate, high-dose systemic methotrexate) is needed. Dexamethasone is preferred over prednisone in induction partly because it does cross the blood-brain barrier.
Q18. "Leukemia cutis" in ALL refers to:
A) Painful ulceration of the oral mucosa
B) A raised, non-pruritic rash from leukemic skin infiltration
C) Purpuric rash due to thrombocytopenia
D) Drug-induced maculopapular eruption
✅ Answer: B) A raised, non-pruritic rash from leukemic skin infiltration
❌ A - Oral ulceration: Oral mucositis and ulcers are treatment complications (from methotrexate, cytarabine). They are not leukemia cutis. Gingival hypertrophy/bleeding is more typical of AML (especially M4/M5 monocytic types).
❌ C - Purpuric rash from thrombocytopenia: Thrombocytopenic purpura (petechiae/ecchymoses) is a flat, non-raised lesion caused by blood extravasation, not leukemic cell infiltration. Leukemia cutis is specifically a raised lesion representing actual leukemic cells in the dermis.
❌ D - Drug-induced eruption: Drug rashes are hypersensitivity reactions and are treatment-related, not disease-related. They may be maculopapular, urticarial, or morbilliform - distinct from the specific raised papules/nodules of leukemia cutis.
Q19. Which surface marker is a target of CAR-T cell therapy in B-ALL?
A) CD7
B) CD19
C) CD56
D) CD33
✅ Answer: B) CD19
❌ A - CD7: CD7 is a T-cell marker. While CD7-targeted CAR-T is under investigation for T-ALL, the established, approved CAR-T therapies in ALL (tisagenlecleucel, etc.) target CD19 on B-lineage blasts.
❌ C - CD56: CD56 (NCAM) is expressed on NK cells and plasma cells. It is a target under investigation in multiple myeloma (daratumumab indirectly relevant) but is not the primary CAR-T target in ALL.
❌ D - CD33: CD33 is expressed on myeloid cells. It is the target of gemtuzumab ozogamicin in AML, not ALL. Using CD33-targeted therapy in B-ALL would miss the target entirely, as B-lymphoblasts do not significantly express CD33.
Q20. Which of the following statements about the outcome of ALL is CORRECT?
A) Adults have better outcomes than children due to more aggressive chemotherapy
B) The major risk of relapse peaks at 5 years after remission
C) Burkitt leukaemia treated with intensive chemotherapy + rituximab achieves ~80-90% overall survival
D) Allogeneic SCT is recommended for all ALL patients in first remission
✅ Answer: C) Burkitt leukaemia treated with intensive chemotherapy + rituximab achieves ~80-90% overall survival
❌ A - Adults have better outcomes than children: The opposite is true. Children achieve ~90% cure rates while adult outcomes are strictly worse with age, falling to < 10% in elderly/frail patients. The improved adult outcomes with "pediatric-inspired" protocols actually comes from adopting children's regimens.
❌ B - Major relapse risk peaks at 5 years: The major risk of relapse is in the first 2 years after achieving remission. Relapse is much less likely after 5 years. This is why consolidation and maintenance therapy are most intensive in the first 2-2.5 years.
❌ D - Allogeneic SCT for ALL patients in first remission: SCT is reserved for high-risk patients in first CR (e.g., Ph+, KMT2A rearrangement, poor induction response, MRD+ after consolidation). It is not recommended for all patients - particularly standard-risk paediatric and adolescent patients do very well without SCT and its attendant morbidity/mortality.
Based on: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 22nd Ed., Goldman-Cecil Medicine, Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease