I now have sufficient information from authoritative textbooks to create 15 high-quality MCQs covering all aspects of glaucoma. Here they are:
🔵 MCQs on Glaucoma — MBBS Level (15 Questions)
Section A: Anatomy & Pathophysiology
Q1. Aqueous humor is produced by which structure?
- A) Corneal endothelium
- B) Non-pigmented ciliary epithelium of the pars plicata
- C) Trabecular meshwork
- D) Canal of Schlemm
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Aqueous humor is produced by the non-pigmented ciliary epithelium of the pars plicata of the ciliary body. It drains through the trabecular meshwork and uveoscleral pathways.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
Q2. The primary route of aqueous humor drainage is through:
- A) Uveoscleral pathway
- B) Iris surface
- C) Trabecular meshwork into Schlemm's canal
- D) Vitreous humor
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Most aqueous humor drains through the trabecular meshwork situated in the iridocorneal angle into the Schlemm's canal. The uveoscleral pathway is a minor route.
(Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease)
Q3. The primary site of damage to the optic nerve in glaucoma is:
- A) Optic chiasm
- B) Macula
- C) Lamina cribrosa
- D) Lateral geniculate body
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: The primary site of glaucomatous optic nerve damage is at the lamina cribrosa, where the axons of the optic nerve exit the eye.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
Q4. In angle-closure glaucoma, which mechanism leads to elevated IOP?
- A) Increased aqueous production by ciliary body
- B) Iris apposition to trabecular meshwork blocking aqueous outflow
- C) Reduced uveoscleral drainage
- D) Blockage of Schlemm's canal by fibrillar deposits
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: In angle-closure glaucoma, the peripheral iris adheres to the trabecular meshwork (forming peripheral anterior synechiae), physically blocking aqueous outflow and raising IOP.
(Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease)
Section B: Classification & Clinical Features
Q5. Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) is defined as:
- A) < 10 mm Hg
- B) 10–15 mm Hg
- C) Up to 21 mm Hg
- D) Up to 30 mm Hg
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Ocular hypertension is defined as IOP > 21 mm Hg (>2 SD above the population mean). However, glaucoma can occur even at normal pressures (normal-tension glaucoma).
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
Q6. The most common type of glaucoma is:
- A) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- B) Congenital glaucoma
- C) Primary open-angle glaucoma
- D) Secondary glaucoma due to uveitis
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is the most common type, particularly in the elderly. In POAG, the trabecular meshwork is anatomically accessible, but resistance to outflow is increased.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for glaucoma?
- A) African ancestry
- B) Hyperopia
- C) Family history
- D) Low blood pressure
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Risk factors include African ancestry, older age, myopia (not hyperopia), low blood pressure, genetic predisposition, and disc haemorrhage. Hyperopia is a risk for angle-closure, not open-angle glaucoma specifically.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
Q8. A patient presents with acute severe eye pain, nausea, vomiting, redness, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A) Acute iritis
- B) Corneal ulcer
- C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- D) Central retinal artery occlusion
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Classic presentation of acute angle-closure glaucoma: prostrating eye pain, headache, nausea/vomiting, red eye, and a fixed, moderately dilated pupil.
(Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine)
Q9. In glaucoma, the characteristic finding on optic disc examination is:
- A) Disc pallor with no cupping
- B) Increased cup-to-disc ratio
- C) Papilloedema
- D) Cherry-red spot at the disc
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Loss of retinal ganglion cell axons leads to enlargement of the optic cup, recorded as an increased cup-to-disc ratio. A C:D ratio >0.6 is suspicious.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
Q10. Visual field defects in primary open-angle glaucoma typically begin in which area?
- A) Central vision (macular area)
- B) Temporal peripheral field
- C) Nasal peripheral and paracentral areas
- D) Superior temporal quadrant only
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Glaucomatous field loss begins in the nasal peripheral and paracentral regions (arcuate scotomas, nasal step). Central (macular) vision is typically preserved until late stages.
(Kanski's Clinical Ophthalmology)
Section C: Pharmacology / Drug Treatment
Q11. The first-line topical drug class for primary open-angle glaucoma is:
- A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
- B) Prostaglandin analogues
- C) Alpha-2 agonists
- D) Cholinergic agonists
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Prostaglandin analogues (e.g., latanoprost 0.005%, travoprost 0.004%) are the most commonly used first-line agents. They are given once daily and work by increasing uveoscleral outflow.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Katzung's Pharmacology)
Q12. Timolol eye drops lower IOP by:
- A) Increasing trabecular outflow
- B) Decreasing aqueous humor secretion
- C) Increasing uveoscleral drainage
- D) Constricting the pupil to open the angle
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Timolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker that lowers IOP by decreasing aqueous humor secretion by the ciliary body. It lacks local anesthetic properties and is well-suited for topical use.
(Katzung's Pharmacology; Ganong's Physiology)
Q13. A known asthmatic patient is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which drug is CONTRAINDICATED?
- A) Latanoprost
- B) Timolol
- C) Dorzolamide
- D) Brimonidine
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Timolol (and other topical beta-blockers) are contraindicated in asthma and COPD due to risk of bronchospasm from systemic absorption. Prostaglandins and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are safer alternatives.
(Textbook of Family Medicine; Wills Eye Manual)
Q14. Which of the following is a known adverse effect of prostaglandin analogues (e.g., latanoprost)?
- A) Increased aqueous secretion
- B) Irreversible brown pigmentation of the iris
- C) Corneal oedema
- D) Acute angle closure
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Prostaglandin analogues cause irreversible brown iris pigmentation, eyelash lengthening/darkening, drying of eyes, and conjunctivitis as notable adverse effects.
(Katzung's Pharmacology)
Section D: Surgical Management
Q15. The standard surgical procedure for glaucoma that creates a fistula between the anterior chamber and episcleral tissue is:
- A) Trabeculotomy
- B) Trabeculectomy
- C) Goniotomy
- D) Cyclophotocoagulation
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Trabeculectomy (filtering surgery) creates a fistula bypassing the trabecular meshwork to allow aqueous drainage into the episcleral/subconjunctival space. It is used in resistant cases. Tube-shunts are an alternative for refractory cases.
(Goldman-Cecil Medicine)
📊 Summary Table
| # | Topic | Correct Answer |
|---|
| 1 | Aqueous production site | B |
| 2 | Aqueous drainage pathway | C |
| 3 | Site of optic nerve damage | C |
| 4 | Mechanism in angle-closure | B |
| 5 | Normal IOP | C |
| 6 | Most common glaucoma | C |
| 7 | Risk factors | B |
| 8 | Acute angle-closure presentation | C |
| 9 | Optic disc finding | B |
| 10 | Visual field defects | C |
| 11 | First-line drug class | B |
| 12 | Timolol mechanism | B |
| 13 | Contraindicated drug in asthma | B |
| 14 | Prostaglandin adverse effect | B |
| 15 | Standard glaucoma surgery | B |
Sources: Goldman-Cecil Medicine | Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease | Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine | Katzung's Pharmacology | Kanski's Clinical Ophthalmology | Ganong's Physiology | Textbook of Family Medicine