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I now have sufficient information from authoritative textbooks to create 15 high-quality MCQs covering all aspects of glaucoma. Here they are:

🔵 MCQs on Glaucoma — MBBS Level (15 Questions)


Section A: Anatomy & Pathophysiology


Q1. Aqueous humor is produced by which structure?
  • A) Corneal endothelium
  • B) Non-pigmented ciliary epithelium of the pars plicata
  • C) Trabecular meshwork
  • D) Canal of Schlemm
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Aqueous humor is produced by the non-pigmented ciliary epithelium of the pars plicata of the ciliary body. It drains through the trabecular meshwork and uveoscleral pathways. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q2. The primary route of aqueous humor drainage is through:
  • A) Uveoscleral pathway
  • B) Iris surface
  • C) Trabecular meshwork into Schlemm's canal
  • D) Vitreous humor
✅ Answer: C Explanation: Most aqueous humor drains through the trabecular meshwork situated in the iridocorneal angle into the Schlemm's canal. The uveoscleral pathway is a minor route. (Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease)

Q3. The primary site of damage to the optic nerve in glaucoma is:
  • A) Optic chiasm
  • B) Macula
  • C) Lamina cribrosa
  • D) Lateral geniculate body
✅ Answer: C Explanation: The primary site of glaucomatous optic nerve damage is at the lamina cribrosa, where the axons of the optic nerve exit the eye. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q4. In angle-closure glaucoma, which mechanism leads to elevated IOP?
  • A) Increased aqueous production by ciliary body
  • B) Iris apposition to trabecular meshwork blocking aqueous outflow
  • C) Reduced uveoscleral drainage
  • D) Blockage of Schlemm's canal by fibrillar deposits
✅ Answer: B Explanation: In angle-closure glaucoma, the peripheral iris adheres to the trabecular meshwork (forming peripheral anterior synechiae), physically blocking aqueous outflow and raising IOP. (Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease)

Section B: Classification & Clinical Features


Q5. Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) is defined as:
  • A) < 10 mm Hg
  • B) 10–15 mm Hg
  • C) Up to 21 mm Hg
  • D) Up to 30 mm Hg
✅ Answer: C Explanation: Ocular hypertension is defined as IOP > 21 mm Hg (>2 SD above the population mean). However, glaucoma can occur even at normal pressures (normal-tension glaucoma). (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q6. The most common type of glaucoma is:
  • A) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
  • B) Congenital glaucoma
  • C) Primary open-angle glaucoma
  • D) Secondary glaucoma due to uveitis
✅ Answer: C Explanation: Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is the most common type, particularly in the elderly. In POAG, the trabecular meshwork is anatomically accessible, but resistance to outflow is increased. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q7. Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for glaucoma?
  • A) African ancestry
  • B) Hyperopia
  • C) Family history
  • D) Low blood pressure
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Risk factors include African ancestry, older age, myopia (not hyperopia), low blood pressure, genetic predisposition, and disc haemorrhage. Hyperopia is a risk for angle-closure, not open-angle glaucoma specifically. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q8. A patient presents with acute severe eye pain, nausea, vomiting, redness, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • A) Acute iritis
  • B) Corneal ulcer
  • C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
  • D) Central retinal artery occlusion
✅ Answer: C Explanation: Classic presentation of acute angle-closure glaucoma: prostrating eye pain, headache, nausea/vomiting, red eye, and a fixed, moderately dilated pupil. (Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine)

Q9. In glaucoma, the characteristic finding on optic disc examination is:
  • A) Disc pallor with no cupping
  • B) Increased cup-to-disc ratio
  • C) Papilloedema
  • D) Cherry-red spot at the disc
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Loss of retinal ganglion cell axons leads to enlargement of the optic cup, recorded as an increased cup-to-disc ratio. A C:D ratio >0.6 is suspicious. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q10. Visual field defects in primary open-angle glaucoma typically begin in which area?
  • A) Central vision (macular area)
  • B) Temporal peripheral field
  • C) Nasal peripheral and paracentral areas
  • D) Superior temporal quadrant only
✅ Answer: C Explanation: Glaucomatous field loss begins in the nasal peripheral and paracentral regions (arcuate scotomas, nasal step). Central (macular) vision is typically preserved until late stages. (Kanski's Clinical Ophthalmology)

Section C: Pharmacology / Drug Treatment


Q11. The first-line topical drug class for primary open-angle glaucoma is:
  • A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  • B) Prostaglandin analogues
  • C) Alpha-2 agonists
  • D) Cholinergic agonists
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Prostaglandin analogues (e.g., latanoprost 0.005%, travoprost 0.004%) are the most commonly used first-line agents. They are given once daily and work by increasing uveoscleral outflow. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Katzung's Pharmacology)

Q12. Timolol eye drops lower IOP by:
  • A) Increasing trabecular outflow
  • B) Decreasing aqueous humor secretion
  • C) Increasing uveoscleral drainage
  • D) Constricting the pupil to open the angle
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Timolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker that lowers IOP by decreasing aqueous humor secretion by the ciliary body. It lacks local anesthetic properties and is well-suited for topical use. (Katzung's Pharmacology; Ganong's Physiology)

Q13. A known asthmatic patient is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which drug is CONTRAINDICATED?
  • A) Latanoprost
  • B) Timolol
  • C) Dorzolamide
  • D) Brimonidine
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Timolol (and other topical beta-blockers) are contraindicated in asthma and COPD due to risk of bronchospasm from systemic absorption. Prostaglandins and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are safer alternatives. (Textbook of Family Medicine; Wills Eye Manual)

Q14. Which of the following is a known adverse effect of prostaglandin analogues (e.g., latanoprost)?
  • A) Increased aqueous secretion
  • B) Irreversible brown pigmentation of the iris
  • C) Corneal oedema
  • D) Acute angle closure
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Prostaglandin analogues cause irreversible brown iris pigmentation, eyelash lengthening/darkening, drying of eyes, and conjunctivitis as notable adverse effects. (Katzung's Pharmacology)

Section D: Surgical Management


Q15. The standard surgical procedure for glaucoma that creates a fistula between the anterior chamber and episcleral tissue is:
  • A) Trabeculotomy
  • B) Trabeculectomy
  • C) Goniotomy
  • D) Cyclophotocoagulation
✅ Answer: B Explanation: Trabeculectomy (filtering surgery) creates a fistula bypassing the trabecular meshwork to allow aqueous drainage into the episcleral/subconjunctival space. It is used in resistant cases. Tube-shunts are an alternative for refractory cases. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

📊 Summary Table

#TopicCorrect Answer
1Aqueous production siteB
2Aqueous drainage pathwayC
3Site of optic nerve damageC
4Mechanism in angle-closureB
5Normal IOPC
6Most common glaucomaC
7Risk factorsB
8Acute angle-closure presentationC
9Optic disc findingB
10Visual field defectsC
11First-line drug classB
12Timolol mechanismB
13Contraindicated drug in asthmaB
14Prostaglandin adverse effectB
15Standard glaucoma surgeryB

Sources: Goldman-Cecil Medicine | Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease | Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine | Katzung's Pharmacology | Kanski's Clinical Ophthalmology | Ganong's Physiology | Textbook of Family Medicine
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