You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 51-year-old man presents for a routine check-up. He has no complaints. At his last annual visit, his physical and laboratory tests were unremarkable. His past medical history is significant for hypercholesterolemia, well managed with rosuvastatin, and hypertension, well managed with hydrochlorothiazide. His current medications also include aspirin. The patient is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. His laboratory tests are significant for the following: WBC 29,500/mm3 Hematocrit 26.1% Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL Platelet count 298,000/mm3 A peripheral blood smear and differential shows 92% small normocytic lymphocytes. The patient’s diagnosis in confirmed by bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry. He is monitored through regular follow-up visits. Three years after the initial diagnosis, the patient presents with swollen cervical and axillary lymph nodes, unintentional weight loss of 4.5 kg (approx. 10 lb), and “rib pain” on his right side. On physical examination, there is palpable, firm, non-tender cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy bilaterally. He also has moderate splenomegaly, which, when palpated, elicits pain. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient’s most likely diagnosis? Options: A) Bleomycinrn B) Imatinib C) Fludarabinern D) Vincristinern Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.