Here is a mixed set of high-yield PYQs from NEET PG, INICET, and FMGE across all subjects, in Q&A format with explanations:

Q1. The nerve most commonly injured in fracture of the surgical neck of humerus is: A) Axillary nerve B) Radial nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Ulnar nerve

Answer: A) Axillary nerve Explanation: The axillary nerve winds around the surgical neck of the humerus. Fracture here or anterior shoulder dislocation can damage it, causing loss of deltoid function (abduction 15°-90°) and loss of sensation over the "regimental badge" area.

Q2. Boundaries of the femoral triangle - which is NOT a boundary? A) Inguinal ligament (superiorly) B) Sartorius (laterally) C) Adductor longus (medially) D) Pectineus (floor)

Answer: D) Pectineus (floor) Explanation: Pectineus forms the floor of the femoral triangle, not its boundary. The boundaries are: inguinal ligament (base/top), sartorius (lateral), adductor longus (medial). The floor is formed by iliopsoas and pectineus.

Q3. Which of the following is the normal value of GFR? A) 50 mL/min B) 75 mL/min C) 125 mL/min D) 180 mL/min

Answer: C) 125 mL/min Explanation: Normal GFR is ~125 mL/min (180 L/day filtered; ~1.5 L excreted as urine). GFR is estimated clinically using creatinine clearance. A GFR < 60 mL/min for >3 months = CKD.

Q4. Resting membrane potential of a nerve fiber is: A) -55 mV B) -70 mV C) -90 mV D) -30 mV

Answer: B) -70 mV Explanation: The resting membrane potential of a typical neuron is -70 mV, maintained primarily by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump and selective K+ permeability. Threshold potential is ~-55 mV.

Q5. Scurvy is due to deficiency of: A) Vitamin B12 B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K

Answer: B) Vitamin C Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is essential for hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis. Deficiency causes defective collagen, leading to bleeding gums, perifollicular hemorrhages, corkscrew hair, and impaired wound healing.

Q6. Enzyme deficient in Phenylketonuria (PKU): A) Phenylalanine transaminase B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase C) Tyrosinase D) Homogentisate oxidase

Answer: B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase Explanation: PKU (autosomal recessive) is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, causing accumulation of phenylalanine. Leads to intellectual disability, mousy odor, fair skin. Screened at birth; treated with low-phenylalanine diet + sapropterin (BH4).

Q7. Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of: A) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B) Hodgkin's lymphoma C) Burkitt's lymphoma D) Mycosis fungoides

Answer: B) Hodgkin's lymphoma Explanation: Classical RS cells are large binucleated/bilobed cells with "owl-eye" nucleoli (CD15+, CD30+). They are pathognomonic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. Lacunar cells are seen in the nodular sclerosis subtype (most common in young adults).

Q8. The "apple green birefringence" on Congo red staining under polarized light is seen in: A) Hemosiderosis B) Amyloidosis C) Lipid storage disease D) Glycogenosis

Answer: B) Amyloidosis Explanation: Amyloid deposits stain with Congo red and show characteristic "apple green" birefringence under polarized light. This is due to the cross-beta-pleated sheet configuration of amyloid fibrils.

Q9. Drug of choice for Absence seizures: A) Phenytoin B) Carbamazepine C) Ethosuximide D) Phenobarbitone

Answer: C) Ethosuximide Explanation: Ethosuximide blocks T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons - the mechanism underlying absence (petit mal) seizures. Valproate is used if absence seizures co-exist with generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Phenytoin/carbamazepine can worsen absence seizures.

Q10. Pencil-in-cup deformity on X-ray is seen in: A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Gout C) Psoriatic arthritis D) Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer: C) Psoriatic arthritis Explanation: Pencil-in-cup (or "cup and pencil") deformity results from severe osteolysis of the distal bone end and proliferative changes at the proximal end - classic for psoriatic arthritis on hand X-rays. Also associated with "ray" distribution and DIP involvement.

Q11. The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is: A) Minimal change disease B) Membranous nephropathy C) FSGS D) IgA nephropathy

Answer: B) Membranous nephropathy Explanation: In adults, membranous nephropathy is the most common cause of primary nephrotic syndrome. It is associated with anti-PLA2R antibodies (~70% of cases). In children, minimal change disease is the most common cause.

Q12. Charcot's triad consists of: A) Fever, jaundice, abdominal pain B) Fever, jaundice, hypotension C) Fever, rigors, loin pain D) Abdominal pain, vomiting, fever

Answer: A) Fever, jaundice, abdominal pain (RUQ) Explanation: Charcot's triad = fever + jaundice + RUQ pain - classic for acute cholangitis (ascending cholangitis due to biliary obstruction + infection). Reynolds' pentad adds hypotension and altered sensorium (indicates septic shock).

Q13. Most common site of peptic ulcer: A) Prepyloric region B) 1st part of duodenum C) Body of stomach D) Pyloric channel

Answer: B) 1st part of duodenum Explanation: Duodenal ulcer (DU) at the anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum is the most common peptic ulcer. Perforation of a DU typically occurs on the anterior wall; posterior DU erosion causes bleeding from the gastroduodenal artery.

Q14. Bishop score assesses: A) Fetal lung maturity B) Cervical favorability for induction C) Risk of preterm labor D) Placental grading

Answer: B) Cervical favorability for induction of labor Explanation: The Bishop score (0-13) assesses: cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and fetal station. Score ≥8 = favorable cervix; induction likely to succeed. Score <6 = unfavorable; cervical ripening agents (prostaglandins, Foley catheter) needed first.

Q15. Koplik's spots are pathognomonic of: A) Rubella B) Chickenpox C) Measles D) Roseola infantum

Answer: C) Measles (Rubeola) Explanation: Koplik's spots (tiny white spots on a red base on the buccal mucosa opposite lower molars) appear 1-2 days before the measles rash and are pathognomonic. The rash starts on the face/hairline and spreads downward (cephalocaudal).

Q16. Sensitivity of a screening test is: A) True negative / (True negative + False positive) B) True positive / (True positive + False negative) C) True positive / (True positive + False positive) D) True negative / (True negative + False negative)

Answer: B) True positive / (True positive + False negative) Explanation: Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN) = ability to correctly identify those WITH the disease. Specificity = TN / (TN + FP). A highly sensitive test is used for screening (misses fewer true cases - low false negatives).

Q17. Commonest benign tumor of the parotid gland: A) Warthin's tumor B) Pleomorphic adenoma C) Oncocytoma D) Basal cell adenoma

Answer: B) Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed parotid tumor) Explanation: Pleomorphic adenoma accounts for ~80% of all parotid tumors. It has both epithelial and mesenchymal (chondromyxoid stroma) components. Risk of malignant transformation (carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma) if untreated. Treatment: superficial parotidectomy.

Q18. The "hot cross bun" appearance on MRI brain is seen in: A) Multiple sclerosis B) Multiple system atrophy (MSA) C) Parkinson's disease D) Progressive supranuclear palsy

Answer: B) Multiple system atrophy (MSA-C) Explanation: The "hot cross bun" sign on T2 MRI (cruciform hyperintensity in the pons) is characteristic of MSA-cerebellar type. It reflects selective loss of pontine neurons and transverse pontocerebellar fibers.

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