Great, I can do that.
I can see all the topics in your screenshot (Obstetrics + Gynaecology), and I will generate viva-style questions with crisp model answers from all topics.
Because this is a very large syllabus (46 topics), I will give you a high-yield complete viva bank in a compact format first. If you want, next I can expand each topic into a long-answer viva version with examiner follow-up questions.
Obstetrics Viva Q&A (High-yield)
1) Antenatal care
Q: What are the aims of antenatal care?
A: Ensure maternal-fetal wellbeing, detect/treat complications early, provide supplements/vaccination, birth preparedness, and counselling.
Q: What is the minimum ANC contact model by WHO?
A: 8 contacts for improved outcomes.
2) Mechanism of labour and labour care
Q: Cardinal movements of labour?
A: Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation, expulsion.
Q: Define active labour.
A: Regular painful contractions with progressive cervical dilatation, usually from about 4 to 6 cm onward depending protocol.
3) Postpartum care
Q: Define puerperium.
A: 6 weeks after delivery during which reproductive organs return to non-pregnant state.
Q: Common immediate postpartum danger signs?
A: Heavy bleeding, fever, severe abdominal pain, severe headache/visual symptoms, breathlessness.
4) Induction of labour
Q: Two common indications for induction?
A: Post-dates pregnancy, hypertensive disorders, diabetes, IUGR, PROM (as indicated).
Q: What score assesses cervical favorability?
A: Bishop score.
5) VBAC and caesarean delivery
Q: One absolute contraindication to VBAC?
A: Previous classical (vertical upper segment) uterine scar.
Q: Most feared complication in TOLAC?
A: Uterine rupture.
6) PROM/PPROM
Q: Define PROM and PPROM.
A: PROM: rupture before labour onset; PPROM: rupture before labour and before 37 weeks.
Q: Major risk of prolonged rupture?
A: Ascending infection (chorioamnionitis).
7) Preterm labour and cerclage
Q: Define preterm labour.
A: Labour before 37 completed weeks with cervical change.
Q: Main indication for cerclage?
A: Cervical insufficiency with suggestive history and/or short cervix criteria.
8) Diabetes in pregnancy
Q: Maternal complications?
A: Preeclampsia, polyhydramnios, operative delivery, infections.
Q: Fetal complications?
A: Macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, stillbirth risk.
9) Hypertension in pregnancy
Q: Diagnostic BP threshold?
A: ≥140/90 mmHg on two readings.
Q: Severe features of preeclampsia?
A: Severe hypertension, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, renal dysfunction, pulmonary edema, cerebral/visual symptoms.
10) Intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)
Q: Define IUFD.
A: Fetal death in utero after age of viability (cutoff varies by guideline).
Q: Two important maternal evaluations after IUFD?
A: Coagulation profile (if prolonged retention), cause workup (infection, hypertension, diabetes, thrombophilia, placental pathology).
11) Fetal growth restriction (FGR)
Q: Differentiate SGA and FGR.
A: SGA is size <10th centile; FGR implies pathological growth failure with Doppler/clinical evidence.
Q: Key surveillance tool?
A: Umbilical artery Doppler.
12) Anaemia in pregnancy
Q: Most common cause?
A: Iron deficiency.
Q: Why treat aggressively?
A: Reduces maternal morbidity, heart failure risk, PPH impact, adverse perinatal outcomes.
13) Rh isoimmunisation
Q: Who needs anti-D prophylaxis?
A: Rh-negative unsensitised women after sensitising events and routinely antenatally/postpartum as per protocol.
Q: Severe fetal complication?
A: Hydrops fetalis due to hemolytic disease.
14) Multiple pregnancy
Q: Main maternal risks?
A: Anemia, preeclampsia, GDM, PPH, operative delivery.
Q: Main fetal risks?
A: Preterm birth, growth restriction, TTTS in monochorionic twins.
15) Epilepsy in pregnancy
Q: Why is preconception care essential?
A: Optimize anti-seizure therapy, minimize teratogenic risk, folic acid planning.
Q: Drug commonly linked with higher congenital malformation risk?
A: Valproate.
16) Antenatal screening
Q: First trimester aneuploidy screening components?
A: Nuchal translucency + serum markers (as per local protocol).
Q: Screening vs diagnostic test?
A: Screening estimates risk; diagnostic confirms disease (e.g., CVS/amniocentesis).
17) Heart disease in pregnancy
Q: Most dangerous period for decompensation?
A: Late pregnancy, labour, and early postpartum due to hemodynamic shifts.
Q: NYHA class meaning?
A: Functional limitation due to cardiac symptoms.
18) Antepartum haemorrhage
Q: Two major causes after 28 weeks?
A: Placenta previa and placental abruption.
Q: First step in management?
A: Maternal stabilization (ABC), then fetal assessment.
19) Liver disease in pregnancy
Q: Pregnancy-specific liver disorders?
A: Intrahepatic cholestasis, acute fatty liver of pregnancy, HELLP.
Q: Key symptom in intrahepatic cholestasis?
A: Pruritus (often palms/soles), usually without rash.
20) Obstetric psychiatry
Q: Postpartum blues vs depression?
A: Blues is mild, transient (few days); depression is persistent, function-impairing.
Q: Psychiatric emergency postpartum?
A: Postpartum psychosis.
21) CTG and partogram
Q: Components of CTG interpretation?
A: Baseline rate, variability, accelerations, decelerations, contractions.
Q: Use of partogram?
A: Track labour progress and detect delay/obstructed labour early.
22) Thyroid disorders in pregnancy
Q: Why uncontrolled hypothyroidism matters?
A: Miscarriage, preeclampsia, preterm birth, neurodevelopmental impact.
Q: Preferred treatment for hypothyroidism?
A: Levothyroxine.
23) DVT in pregnancy
Q: Why risk is increased?
A: Hypercoagulable state + venous stasis + endothelial factors.
Q: Drug of choice for treatment in pregnancy?
A: Low molecular weight heparin.
Gynaecology Viva Q&A (High-yield)
1) Miscarriage
Q: Types of miscarriage?
A: Threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, missed, septic, recurrent.
Q: Management options in early pregnancy loss?
A: Expectant, medical, surgical.
2) Ectopic pregnancy
Q: Commonest site?
A: Fallopian tube (ampulla most common).
Q: Life-threatening complication?
A: Rupture causing intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
3) Primary amenorrhoea and puberty
Q: Define primary amenorrhoea.
A: No menarche by expected age cutoff per guideline, especially with absent secondary sexual characteristics.
Q: First evaluation steps?
A: Pregnancy exclusion (if relevant), history, exam, pelvic US, hormonal profile.
4) Symptom analysis bleeding
Q: Key bleeding history points?
A: Pattern, amount, duration, intermenstrual/postcoital bleeding, pain, pregnancy possibility, medications.
Q: Why ask age?
A: Differential diagnosis changes with age and guides cancer risk assessment.
5) Symptom analysis pain
Q: Causes of acute pelvic pain?
A: Ectopic pregnancy, torsion, PID, ruptured cyst, appendicitis.
Q: Red flags?
A: Hemodynamic instability, fever/sepsis, peritonism, positive pregnancy test with pain.
6) Menstruation physiology & HPO-axis drugs
Q: Normal cycle control axis?
A: Hypothalamus (GnRH) → pituitary (FSH/LH) → ovary (estrogen/progesterone).
Q: Drug class that suppresses ovulation?
A: Combined hormonal contraception / GnRH analogues (context dependent).
7) Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)
Q: PALM-COEIN classification meaning?
A: Structural: Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy/Hyperplasia; Non-structural: Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not yet classified.
Q: First-line test in reproductive age with AUB?
A: Pregnancy test.
8) Fibroids and adenomyosis
Q: Typical fibroid symptoms?
A: Heavy bleeding, pressure symptoms, infertility/subfertility, pain.
Q: Definitive treatment for symptomatic fibroids with completed family?
A: Hysterectomy.
9) Endometriosis
Q: Classic symptom triad?
A: Dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, subfertility/chronic pelvic pain.
Q: Gold standard diagnosis?
A: Laparoscopy with histologic confirmation.
10) Molar pregnancy
Q: Hallmark lab finding?
A: Markedly elevated beta-hCG.
Q: Essential follow-up?
A: Serial beta-hCG monitoring to detect persistent trophoblastic disease.
11) PCOS and secondary amenorrhoea
Q: Rotterdam criteria (any two)?
A: Oligo/anovulation, clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovarian morphology.
Q: Long-term risks in PCOS?
A: Insulin resistance, type 2 diabetes, endometrial hyperplasia/cancer risk.
12) Subfertility
Q: Definition?
A: Failure to conceive after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse (earlier evaluation in selected cases).
Q: Basic couple evaluation?
A: Ovulation assessment, tubal patency/uterine cavity assessment, semen analysis.
13) Infections in gynaecology
Q: Common organisms in PID?
A: N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, mixed anaerobic flora.
Q: Long-term sequelae of PID?
A: Infertility, chronic pelvic pain, ectopic risk.
14) Contraception
Q: Most effective reversible method?
A: LARC (IUD/IUS, implant).
Q: Emergency contraception options?
A: Levonorgestrel, ulipristal acetate, copper IUD.
15) Menopause and HRT
Q: Definition of menopause?
A: 12 months of amenorrhoea due to ovarian follicular depletion.
Q: Main benefit of HRT?
A: Relief of vasomotor symptoms and prevention of bone loss in appropriate candidates.
16) Postmenopausal bleeding
Q: Why is PMB important?
A: Must exclude endometrial carcinoma.
Q: First-line investigation?
A: Transvaginal ultrasound (endometrial thickness assessment), then biopsy if indicated.
17) Urinary incontinence
Q: Types?
A: Stress, urge, mixed, overflow, functional.
Q: First-line treatment for stress incontinence?
A: Pelvic floor muscle training.
18) Pelvic organ prolapse
Q: Risk factors?
A: Multiparity, aging, menopause, obesity, chronic raised intra-abdominal pressure.
Q: Non-surgical management?
A: Pelvic floor exercises, pessary.
19) Recurrent miscarriage
Q: Define recurrent pregnancy loss (common definition)?
A: Two or more consecutive losses (definition varies by guideline).
Q: Important causes to screen?
A: APS, uterine anomalies, parental karyotype issues, endocrine factors.
20) Ovarian neoplasms (benign/malignant)
Q: Features suspicious for malignancy?
A: Solid areas, papillary projections, ascites, bilateral complex masses, raised risk markers.
Q: Tumor marker commonly used in epithelial ovarian cancer?
A: CA-125 (not a standalone screening test).
21) Cervical cancer and screening
Q: Main etiological factor?
A: Persistent high-risk HPV infection.
Q: Screening methods?
A: HPV testing and/or cytology per national program.
22) Endometrial hyperplasia and cancer
Q: Key risk factor?
A: Unopposed estrogen exposure.
Q: Definitive diagnosis?
A: Endometrial sampling/histopathology.
23) Premenstrual syndrome
Q: PMS vs PMDD?
A: PMDD is severe, function-impairing form with marked mood symptoms.
Q: Initial management?
A: Lifestyle measures, symptom charting, then pharmacologic options if needed.
If you want, I can now give:
- Top 10 most commonly asked examiner traps from these topics
- One-line rapid-fire viva answers (for last-minute revision)
- OSCE-style case viva station questions for each topic.