You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 29-year-old G1P0 woman is giving birth at 38 weeks gestation to a boy via vaginal delivery. As soon as the infant is clear of the vagina, a congenital malformation of the abdomen is observed. The infant is removed from the delivery room for further evaluation. Visual inspection shows loops of intestine protruding out of his abdomen on the right side. His APGAR scores are 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. His heart rate is 125/min, and his respirations are 45/min. All reflexes appear normal. There are no other visible defects. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Options: A) Wrap the intestines in a sterile bowel bag B) Transfer the newborn to the NICU C) Start IV fluids D) Transfer the newborn for immediate surgery Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.