You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 21-year-old man comes to the emergency room with swelling and severe pain in his left lower leg that started 2 hours ago. He has no history of serious illness or trauma. His father has a history of pulmonary embolism. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily since he started college 3 years ago. He appears very distressed. He is 173 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall and weighs 92 kg (203 lb); BMI is 30.7 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 94/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 130/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a tender and mildly swollen left lower leg; dorsiflexion of the left foot causes severe pain in the calf. Laboratory studies show a platelet count of 184,000/mm3, a prothrombin time of 11 seconds, an activated partial thromboplastin time of 26 seconds, and positive fibrin split products. Ultrasonography of the left leg shows incompressibility of the popliteal vein with a hyperechoic mass and absent blood flow. The patient is administered a 5000 IU intravenous bolus of unfractionated heparin followed by a constant infusion. Six hours later, the activated partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? Options: A) Antithrombin III deficiency B) Factor V Leiden C) Protein C deficiency D) Antiphospholipid syndrome Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.