You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: An 11-month-old male infant is brought to his pediatrician by his mother. She is concerned about his leg and his inability to stand. He was born vaginally to a 33-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) from an uncomplicated pregnancy at 39 weeks. He has met all developmental milestones and is up to date on all vaccinations. His mother explains that he can normally stand without help and can walk briefly on his own. However, he hit his right leg against a chair 2 days ago. The area became edematous and bruised overtime and the infant became unable to stand or crawl and cries when he puts weight on it. The mother denies any child abuse from her family or child care. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg, heart rate 137/min, respiratory rate 25/min, and temperature 36.7°C (97.0°F). His length and weight are both between the 15th and 25th percentile. On physical examination, blue-grayish discoloration of the sclerae are noted. Respiratory, cardiovascular, and abdominal examinations are within normal limits for his age. There is joint hypermobility and decreased tone in both upper and lower extremities. The patient’s right calf appears slightly deformed, edematous, and warm to the tough. The patient begins to cry loudly when the physician palpates his leg. The patient’s X-ray shows an incomplete fracture of the right tibial diaphysis. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms? Options: A) Insufficient production of procollagen type 1 B) Mutation in the gene encoding fibrillin-1 C) Defective collagen type 3 D) Dysfunctional structure of laminins Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.