NEET PG 2026 - 200 Most Probable High-Yield Questions
Based on: Last 5-Year PYQ Analysis (2022-2026) + Recent Updates + Recall-Based Image Questions
TREND ANALYSIS: NEET PG 2022-2026
| Subject | 2025 Qs | Weightage | Trend |
|---|
| Medicine (incl. Derm, Psych) | 30 | 15% | Highest - clinical vignettes |
| OBGYN | 20 | 10% | Very high - PPH, ANC, fertility |
| Surgery | 18 | 9% | High - trauma, GI, oncology |
| PSM | 16 | 8% | Consistent - programs, statistics |
| Pharmacology | 15 | 7.5% | Rising - clinical drug use |
| Biochemistry | 15 | 7.5% | Rising - metabolic integration |
| Pathology | 12 | 6% | Stable - IHC, chromosomal |
| Microbiology | 12 | 6% | Stable - clinical context |
| Anatomy | 9 | 4.5% | Moderate - radiological focus |
| Dermatology | 8 | 4% | Rising - image-heavy |
| Forensic Medicine | 6 | 3% | Stable |
| Orthopaedics | 5 | 2.5% | Stable |
| Ophthalmology | 5 | 2.5% | Stable |
| ENT | 5 | 2.5% | Stable |
| Paediatrics | 5 | 2.5% | Stable |
| Radiology | 5 | 2.5% | Rising |
| Physiology | 5 | 2.5% | Integrated |
| Anaesthesia | 4 | 2% | Stable |
Key exam pattern shift 2022-2026:
- ~50% image-based (doubled from 2022)
- ~70% clinical vignette format
- ~30% repeats from PYQs
- Basic sciences now mostly integrated into clinical scenarios
- Drug of choice tested 15-20 times per paper
PART 1 - 200 HIGH-YIELD MCQs WITH ANSWERS
ANATOMY (9 Questions)
Q1. The long head of biceps brachii originates from:
a) Coracoid process
b) Supraglenoid tubercle
c) Infraglenoid tubercle
d) Acromion
Answer: B - Supraglenoid tubercle (long head of triceps = infraglenoid tubercle - a perennial trap)
Q2. In a cross-sectional CT at the level of T4, which structure is most anterior?
a) Esophagus
b) Trachea
c) Ascending aorta
d) Superior vena cava
Answer: C - Ascending aorta (radiological anatomy is heavily tested post-2023)
Q3. Structures passing through the jugular foramen include all EXCEPT:
a) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
b) CN X (Vagus)
c) CN XI (Accessory)
d) CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: D - CN XII exits through the hypoglossal canal (NEET PG 2025 direct recall Q1)
Q4. The artery of Adamkiewicz (great anterior radiculomedullary artery) typically arises from:
a) T1-T4 level
b) T9-L2 level
c) L3-S1 level
d) C5-C8 level
Answer: B - T9-L2 (left side); important for spinal cord ischemia after aortic surgery
Q5. Femoral sheath does NOT contain:
a) Femoral artery
b) Femoral vein
c) Femoral nerve
d) Femoral canal
Answer: C - Femoral nerve lies outside the femoral sheath, lateral to it
Q6. Which cranial nerve exits the skull through the foramen rotundum?
a) Ophthalmic (V1)
b) Maxillary (V2)
c) Mandibular (V3)
d) Facial (VII)
Answer: B - V2 (Maxillary) through foramen rotundum
Q7. Winged scapula results from injury to:
a) Axillary nerve
b) Musculocutaneous nerve
c) Long thoracic nerve
d) Suprascapular nerve
Answer: C - Long thoracic nerve (nerve to serratus anterior)
Q8. SLAP lesion (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) involves which structure?
a) Medial meniscus
b) Glenoid labrum
c) Triangular fibrocartilage complex
d) Ligamentum teres
Answer: B - Glenoid labrum; seen with overhead athletes
Q9. In a right-sided aortic arch (right 4th aortic arch abnormality), what vessel is anomalous?
a) Left subclavian artery
b) Right subclavian artery
c) Left common carotid artery
d) Aberrant right subclavian
Answer: B - Right 4th aortic arch; aberrant left subclavian with dysphagia lusoria (NEET PG 2025 Q2)
PHYSIOLOGY (5 Questions)
Q10. The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts RIGHT in:
a) Decreased temperature
b) Decreased 2,3-DPG
c) Increased PCO2 (Bohr effect)
d) Increased pH
Answer: C - Right shift = decreased O2 affinity = better O2 delivery to tissues
Q11. In a patient with metabolic alkalosis, compensation occurs by:
a) Hyperventilation
b) Hypoventilation
c) Increased bicarbonate excretion only
d) Decreased chloride reabsorption
Answer: B - Hypoventilation increases CO2 to compensate for high pH
Q12. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is located at:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Macula densa of DCT + afferent arteriole
c) Collecting duct
d) Loop of Henle
Answer: B - JGA = macula densa (DCT) + juxtaglomerular cells (afferent arteriole) + mesangial cells
Q13. Starling's law of the heart states that stroke volume increases with:
a) Increased heart rate
b) Increased end-diastolic volume (preload)
c) Increased afterload
d) Decreased venous return
Answer: B - Frank-Starling: increased EDV → increased force of contraction
Q14. The primary site of GIP (Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide) secretion:
a) Stomach G-cells
b) Duodenal K-cells
c) Ileal L-cells
d) Pancreatic alpha cells
Answer: B - K-cells of duodenum/jejunum; triggers insulin release
BIOCHEMISTRY (15 Questions)
Q15. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by deficiency of:
a) Phenylalanine transaminase
b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c) Tyrosinase
d) Homogentisate oxidase
Answer: B - Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency; accumulates phenylalanine → musty odor, intellectual disability
Q16. Von Gierke disease (GSD type I) is due to deficiency of:
a) Liver phosphorylase
b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
c) Amylo-1,6-glucosidase
d) Alpha-1,4-glucosidase (acid maltase)
Answer: B - G6Pase deficiency; severe fasting hypoglycemia + hepatomegaly
Q17. Which enzyme is deficient in Tay-Sachs disease?
a) Hexosaminidase A
b) Sphingomyelinase
c) Glucocerebrosidase
d) Arylsulfatase A
Answer: A - Hexosaminidase A; GM2 ganglioside accumulation; cherry-red spot
Q18. HbA1c reflects glycemic control over:
a) 2-4 weeks
b) 4-6 weeks
c) 2-3 months
d) 6 months
Answer: C - Reflects last 2-3 months (RBC lifespan ~120 days)
Q19. Biotin is a cofactor for which enzyme?
a) Pyruvate kinase
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Lactate dehydrogenase
Answer: B - Pyruvate carboxylase, propionyl-CoA carboxylase, acetyl-CoA carboxylase (all carboxylases need biotin)
Q20. The rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is:
a) Squalene synthase
b) HMG-CoA reductase
c) HMG-CoA synthase
d) Mevalonate kinase
Answer: B - HMG-CoA reductase; target of statins
Q21. In Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which enzyme is deficient?
a) Adenosine deaminase
b) HGPRT (Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase)
c) Xanthine oxidase
d) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Answer: B - HGPRT; X-linked; gout + self-mutilation + choreoathetosis
Q22. Kwashiorkor is characterized by:
a) Marasmus + edema + hair changes
b) Pure caloric deficiency
c) Protein deficiency with edema, fatty liver, skin changes
d) Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: C - Protein deficiency → hypoalbuminemia → edema; "flag sign" in hair; fatty liver
Q23. Which vitamin deficiency causes pellagra (4Ds: Diarrhea, Dermatitis, Dementia, Death)?
a) B1 (Thiamine)
b) B2 (Riboflavin)
c) B3 (Niacin)
d) B6 (Pyridoxine)
Answer: C - Niacin (B3) deficiency; casal's necklace on neck
Q24. The Cori cycle involves:
a) Glucose - pyruvate - lactate (muscle) → lactate - glucose (liver)
b) Fatty acid - ketone - glucose
c) Glucose - alanine - glucose
d) Only hepatic gluconeogenesis
Answer: A - Lactate from anaerobic muscle glycolysis recycled to glucose in liver
Q25. Homocystinuria (classical) is treated with:
a) Biotin
b) Pyridoxine (B6)
c) Folate alone
d) Cobalamin alone
Answer: B - Cystathionine beta-synthase deficiency; most respond to B6 supplementation
Q26. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is elevated in all EXCEPT:
a) Hepatocellular carcinoma
b) Germ cell tumors (yolk sac)
c) Neural tube defects (maternal serum)
d) Down syndrome (maternal serum)
Answer: D - Down syndrome has LOW AFP (triple test: low AFP, low uE3, high hCG)
Q27. The most abundant immunoglobulin in breast milk/colostrum:
a) IgG
b) IgA (secretory)
c) IgM
d) IgE
Answer: B - Secretory IgA provides passive mucosal immunity to newborn
Q28. Phenylketonuria dietary restriction requires:
a) Avoiding all proteins
b) Low phenylalanine diet (avoid aspartame)
c) Low tyrosine diet
d) High tryptophan diet
Answer: B - Avoid phenylalanine; aspartame (NutraSweet) contains phenylalanine
Q29. Enzyme marker for myocardial infarction that is most specific and rises last:
a) LDH
b) AST
c) Troponin I/T
d) Myoglobin
Answer: C - Troponin is gold standard; most specific, rises 4-6 hr, stays elevated 1-2 weeks
PHARMACOLOGY (15 Questions)
Q30. Drug of choice for pre-operative preparation of pheochromocytoma:
a) Atenolol
b) Clonidine
c) Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible alpha blocker)
d) Prazosin
Answer: C - Phenoxybenzamine first (alpha blockade), then beta blocker (NEVER beta first - hypertensive crisis) (NEET PG 2025 Q188)
Q31. Empagliflozin is preferred over other antidiabetics in a patient with:
a) CKD stage 1 only
b) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
c) Pregnancy
d) Type 1 DM
Answer: B - SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) reduce HF hospitalization and CV mortality (NEET PG 2025 Q65)
Q32. Topiramate is preferred for migraine prophylaxis in a patient with:
a) Renal stones
b) Obesity and comorbid epilepsy
c) CAD (coronary artery disease)
d) Pregnancy
Answer: C - Topiramate in CAD (propranolol relatively contraindicated in CAD with bronchospasm; topiramate is safe) (NEET PG 2025 recall)
Q33. MgSO4 loading dose in Pritchard's regimen for eclampsia:
a) 2g IV + 5g each buttock IM
b) 4g IV + 10g each buttock IM
c) 4g IV + 5g each buttock IM
d) 6g IV over 15 min
Answer: C - 4g IV over 20 min loading + 5g IM each buttock (10g total IM)
Q34. Which drug causes "Gray baby syndrome"?
a) Tetracycline
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Gentamicin
d) Trimethoprim
Answer: B - Chloramphenicol: neonates lack UDP-glucuronyl transferase; accumulation causes cardiovascular collapse
Q35. Ivermectin mechanism of action:
a) Inhibits tubulin polymerization
b) Increases Cl- influx via glutamate-gated channels → paralysis
c) Inhibits ATP production in helminths
d) Blocks acetylcholine receptors
Answer: B - Opens glutamate-gated Cl- channels in invertebrates (doesn't cross mammalian BBB)
Q36. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is MOST commonly caused by:
a) Penicillin
b) Allopurinol
c) Carbamazepine and sulfonamides
d) Aspirin
Answer: C - Carbamazepine (especially in HLA-B*1502 allele carriers) and sulfonamides are most common causes
Q37. Drug used for reversal of dabigatran (direct thrombin inhibitor):
a) Protamine sulfate
b) Vitamin K
c) Idarucizumab
d) Andexanet alfa
Answer: C - Idarucizumab (Praxbind) specifically reverses dabigatran; andexanet alfa reverses Xa inhibitors
Q38. Zero-order kinetics means:
a) Rate depends on drug concentration
b) Constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
c) Half-life is constant
d) Bioavailability is 100%
Answer: B - Zero-order: phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin (at toxic doses); saturation of metabolizing enzymes
Q39. Warfarin interacts with which antibiotic to INCREASE anticoagulant effect?
a) Rifampicin (enzyme inducer - decreases effect)
b) Metronidazole
c) Isoniazid
d) Rifampicin
Answer: B - Metronidazole inhibits CYP2C9 → increases warfarin levels → increased bleeding risk
Q40. Drug of choice for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis and treatment:
a) Pentamidine
b) Cotrimoxazole (TMP-SMX)
c) Dapsone
d) Atovaquone
Answer: B - TMP-SMX is DOC for treatment and prophylaxis (CD4 <200)
Q41. Serotonin syndrome triad:
a) Fever + rigidity + autonomic instability (like NMS but NO lead-pipe rigidity)
b) Mental status change + autonomic instability + neuromuscular abnormalities (clonus, hyperreflexia, tremor)
c) Bradycardia + miosis + diaphoresis
d) Hyperthermia + rhabdomyolysis only
Answer: B - Serotonin syndrome: mental changes + autonomic instability + neuromuscular hyperactivity (clonus is KEY distinguisher from NMS)
Q42. Antidote for organophosphate poisoning:
a) Physostigmine only
b) Atropine + Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
c) Naloxone
d) Flumazenil
Answer: B - Atropine for muscarinic symptoms + pralidoxime to reactivate cholinesterase (must give before "aging")
Q43. Drug causing "rabbit syndrome" (perioral tremor):
a) Clozapine
b) Typical antipsychotics (haloperidol)
c) Lithium
d) SSRIs
Answer: B - Late-onset EPS with typical antipsychotics; rare but tested
Q44. Which NSAID is most COX-1 selective (most GI toxic)?
a) Celecoxib
b) Meloxicam
c) Aspirin
d) Ketorolac
Answer: C - Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 preferentially at low doses (antiplatelet)
PATHOLOGY (12 Questions)
Q45. AML M3 (Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia - APML) is characterized by:
a) t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome
b) t(15;17) PML-RARA fusion
c) t(14;18) BCL-2 overexpression
d) t(8;14) c-MYC
Answer: B - t(15;17) PML-RARA; treated with ATRA + arsenic trioxide; high DIC risk (NEET PG 2025)
Q46. Follicular lymphoma is associated with:
a) t(11;14) BCL-1/cyclin D1
b) t(14;18) BCL-2 overexpression
c) t(8;14) c-MYC
d) t(2;5) ALK
Answer: B - t(14;18) causes BCL-2 overexpression → prevents apoptosis → indolent B-cell lymphoma (NEET PG 2025)
Q47. Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is diagnosed by:
a) ASMA (Anti-smooth muscle antibody)
b) ANA
c) AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibody M2)
d) Anti-LKM-1
Answer: C - AMA-M2 is pathognomonic; middle-aged women; pruritus + jaundice
Q48. Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of:
a) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b) Hodgkin lymphoma
c) Multiple myeloma
d) CLL
Answer: B - "Owl-eye" RS cells; positive for CD15 and CD30; Hodgkin lymphoma
Q49. Pannus formation in joints occurs in:
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Gout
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Pseudogout
Answer: C - Pannus = proliferative synovial granulation tissue that destroys cartilage in RA (NEET PG 2025)
Q50. Psammoma bodies (laminated calcifications) are seen in:
a) Papillary thyroid carcinoma, meningioma, serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
b) Follicular thyroid carcinoma
c) Medullary thyroid carcinoma
d) Anaplastic carcinoma
Answer: A - "PSaMMoma" = Papillary thyroid, Serous ovarian, Meningioma, Mesothelioma
Q51. Amyloid staining with Congo red shows what under polarized light?
a) Green birefringence
b) Red birefringence
c) Yellow-white
d) Purple
Answer: A - Apple-green birefringence under polarized light = amyloid; Congo red stain
Q52. Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) (BCR-ABL fusion) is diagnostic of:
a) AML
b) ALL (B-cell subtype) and CML
c) CLL
d) Hodgkin lymphoma
Answer: B - BCR-ABL in CML (99%) and B-cell ALL (25-30%); imatinib targets BCR-ABL
Q53. Warburg effect in cancer refers to:
a) Oxidative phosphorylation preference
b) Aerobic glycolysis (glucose → lactate even with oxygen present)
c) Increased fatty acid oxidation
d) Decreased glucose uptake
Answer: B - Cancer cells prefer aerobic glycolysis for anabolic intermediates; basis of PET scan
Q54. Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) has which serum profile?
a) Low FSH, Low LH, High testosterone
b) High FSH, High LH, Low testosterone
c) Normal FSH, high testosterone
d) Low FSH, normal LH, normal testosterone
Answer: B - Primary hypogonadism; seminiferous tubule dysgenesis; infertility
Q55. The microscopic finding of "signet ring cells" is most characteristic of:
a) Mucinous adenocarcinoma of colon
b) Linitis plastica (diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma)
c) Hepatocellular carcinoma
d) Transitional cell carcinoma
Answer: B - Signet ring cells in gastric linitis plastica; also seen in Krukenberg tumor (ovarian mets from gastric)
Q56. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of:
a) Coagulative necrosis
b) Liquefactive necrosis
c) Tuberculosis granuloma
d) Fat necrosis
Answer: C - "Cheese-like" granular necrosis = TB; central to Ghon focus and granuloma formation
MICROBIOLOGY (12 Questions)
Q57. Aspergillus species in tissue shows:
a) Broad aseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (90°)
b) Narrow septate hyphae branching at 45° acute angle
c) Budding yeast with pseudohyphae
d) Spherules with endospores
Answer: B - Aspergillus: septate, acute-angle branching (45°); Mucor/Rhizopus = broad aseptate, right-angle (NEET PG 2025)
Q58. Nocardia is identified in lab using:
a) India ink preparation
b) Paraffin bait technique
c) ZN stain only
d) Giemsa stain
Answer: B - Paraffin bait technique (or modified ZN stain - weakly acid-fast) (NEET PG 2025)
Q59. Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) diagnosis is by:
a) Stool ova & parasite exam
b) Cellulose acetate tape (Scotch tape) test - perianal scraping
c) String test
d) Serology
Answer: B - Perianal pruritus worse at night; eggs collected from perianal skin with tape
Q60. IRIS (Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome) occurs in HIV-TB when:
a) Starting TB treatment before ART
b) Starting ART too early after TB treatment initiation (within 2-8 weeks)
c) Stopping ART
d) Drug-resistant TB
Answer: B - IRIS occurs when immune system "wakes up" after ART; TB lesions paradoxically worsen (NEET PG 2025)
Q61. Heterophile antibodies (detected by Monospot test) are characteristic of:
a) CMV
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) EBV (Infectious mononucleosis)
d) HIV primary infection
Answer: C - EBV; Paul-Bunnell test/Monospot; atypical lymphocytes; splenomegaly
Q62. Giardia lamblia trophozoite has which characteristic appearance?
a) Kidney-shaped with axostyle
b) Pear-shaped with 2 nuclei giving "owl-eye" appearance
c) Crescent-shaped (banana)
d) Cyst with 4 nuclei
Answer: B - Trophozoite: pear-shaped, 2 nuclei = "old man's face" or "owl face"; suction disk; causes fatty diarrhea
Q63. The serological marker that indicates immunity to hepatitis B (vaccination or past infection):
a) HBsAg
b) HBeAg
c) Anti-HBs (HBsAb)
d) Anti-HBc IgM
Answer: C - Anti-HBs = protective immunity; only anti-HBs positive (without anti-HBc) = vaccination
Q64. Weil-Felix reaction (agglutination of Proteus OX strains) is used for diagnosis of:
a) Typhoid
b) Rickettsial infections
c) Brucellosis
d) Leptospirosis
Answer: B - Rickettsial infections (Rickettsia shares antigens with Proteus); OX-19, OX-2, OX-K
Q65. VDRL test becomes positive after how long in syphilis:
a) 1 week after primary chancre
b) 4-6 weeks after infection / 1-3 weeks after chancre appears
c) Only in tertiary syphilis
d) Immediately after exposure
Answer: B - VDRL (non-treponemal) becomes positive 4-6 weeks post-infection; used for monitoring treatment
Q66. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:
a) ETEC
b) Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile
c) Salmonella
d) Campylobacter
Answer: B - C. diff produces toxin A (enterotoxin) and B (cytotoxin); after broad-spectrum antibiotics; treat with vancomycin PO or fidaxomicin
Q67. The characteristic lesion of molluscum contagiosum on histology:
a) Intranuclear inclusion (Cowdry type A)
b) Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Henderson-Patterson/molluscum bodies)
c) Reed-Sternberg cells
d) Koilocytes
Answer: B - Poxvirus; Henderson-Patterson bodies (intracytoplasmic); umbilicated papules
Q68. Vibrio cholerae O1 El Tor produces what type of toxin mechanism?
a) Cytotoxin destroying mucosal cells
b) ADP-ribosylation of Gs → permanently activated adenylyl cyclase → excess cAMP → Cl-/water secretion
c) Neurotoxin blocking ACh release
d) Invasion of mucosal cells
Answer: B - Cholera toxin: rice-water stool; no mucosal invasion; rehydration ORS is mainstay
GENERAL MEDICINE (30 Questions)
Q69. ARDS management: The lung-protective ventilation strategy uses:
a) High tidal volume (12 mL/kg) + low PEEP
b) Low tidal volume (6 mL/kg) + high PEEP (permissive hypercapnia)
c) High FiO2 + low PEEP
d) Prone positioning only
Answer: B - ARDSNet protocol: 6 mL/kg ideal body weight + PEEP titration; prone positioning added for severe ARDS (NEET PG 2025)
Q70. Addison's disease classic electrolyte findings:
a) Hyponatremia + hyperkalemia + metabolic acidosis
b) Hypernatremia + hypokalemia + alkalosis
c) Normonatremia + normokalemia
d) Hyponatremia + hypokalemia
Answer: A - Mineralocorticoid deficiency → Na wasting + K retention + acidosis; "salt craving" + hyperpigmentation + low BP (NEET PG 2025)
Q71. Atrial fibrillation rate control: Drug of choice in a patient with AF + heart failure with reduced EF (HFrEF):
a) Verapamil
b) Diltiazem
c) Metoprolol (beta-blocker) or Digoxin
d) Flecainide
Answer: C - Ca channel blockers (verapamil/diltiazem) are CONTRAINDICATED in HFrEF; use beta-blockers or digoxin
Q72. Atrial flutter rate control with a calcium channel blocker: Most appropriate choice:
a) Amlodipine
b) Nifedipine
c) Diltiazem
d) Felodipine
Answer: C - Diltiazem (non-dihydropyridine CCB) for rate control in AF/flutter (NEET PG 2025 Q64)
Q73. Duke criteria for infective endocarditis require:
a) 2 major OR 1 major + 3 minor OR 5 minor criteria for definite IE
b) 1 major + 1 minor
c) Only positive blood cultures
d) 3 major criteria
Answer: A - Duke: 2 major = definite; 1 major + 3 minor = definite; 5 minor = definite (tested frequently as diagnostic criteria Q)
Q74. Fat embolism syndrome classically presents with:
a) Immediate post-fracture respiratory distress
b) 24-72 hours after long bone fracture: hypoxia + petechial rash + confusion (triad)
c) Only in pelvic fractures
d) Pure DVT picture
Answer: B - Classic triad: respiratory failure + neurological signs + petechiae on upper body; fat globules in sputum/urine (NEET PG 2025)
Q75. Paget's disease of bone: Serum biochemistry shows:
a) Low ALP + elevated calcium
b) Markedly elevated ALP, normal calcium, normal phosphate
c) Elevated PTH + low calcium
d) Elevated calcium + low PTH
Answer: B - Paget's: very high ALP (bone formation marker); normal Ca/P; "cotton-wool" skull X-ray (NEET PG 2025)
Q76. Jones criteria (revised 2015) for Acute Rheumatic Fever diagnosis:
a) Requires all criteria: carditis + chorea + rash
b) 2 major OR 1 major + 2 minor criteria with evidence of prior strep infection
c) Only strep serology
d) 3 minor criteria sufficient
Answer: B - Major: carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules; Minor: fever, elevated ESR/CRP, prolonged PR
Q77. In HIV management, ART should be started in HIV-TB co-infection:
a) After completing full TB treatment
b) Within 2-8 weeks of starting anti-TB treatment (except for TB meningitis - 8 weeks)
c) Immediately at TB diagnosis
d) Only when CD4 < 50
Answer: B - WHO guidelines: start ART within 2-8 weeks; TB meningitis: delay to 8 weeks (IRIS risk) (NEET PG 2025)
Q78. DKA (Diabetic ketoacidosis) management: Insulin is started:
a) Immediately on presentation
b) After initial hydration (usually 1-2 hours) and potassium ≥3.5 mEq/L
c) Only when glucose > 400 mg/dL
d) Only IV insulin, never subcutaneous
Answer: B - Potassium must be ≥3.5 before starting insulin (insulin drives K into cells - can cause fatal hypokalemia); fluids first
Q79. SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH) key finding:
a) Hypernatremia + concentrated urine
b) Hyponatremia + inappropriately concentrated urine (urine osmolality > serum osmolality)
c) Hyponatremia + dilute urine
d) Hypernatremia + dilute urine (DI pattern)
Answer: B - SIADH: euvolemic hyponatremia; urine Na >20, urine osmol > serum osmol; treat with fluid restriction
Q80. Treatment of choice for Helicobacter pylori eradication (standard triple therapy):
a) Amoxicillin + Metronidazole
b) PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin (14 days)
c) PPI alone
d) Bismuth quadruple therapy only
Answer: B - PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin x 14 days (first line in low clarithromycin resistance areas); bismuth quadruple if resistance high
Q81. Wilson's disease (Hepatolenticular degeneration) - gold standard diagnostic finding:
a) Elevated serum copper
b) Kayser-Fleischer rings (slit lamp) + low ceruloplasmin
c) Elevated ferritin
d) Liver biopsy showing iron overload
Answer: B - KF rings (not pathognomonic alone) + low serum ceruloplasmin + elevated urinary copper; treat with D-penicillamine or trientine
Q82. Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm with blood pressure cuff inflation) indicates:
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hypomagnesemia
d) Either hypocalcemia OR hypomagnesemia
Answer: D - Both hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia cause tetany; Chvostek's sign also
Q83. RIFLE criteria / AKIN criteria are used for staging:
a) Chronic liver disease
b) Acute kidney injury
c) Chronic kidney disease
d) Heart failure
Answer: B - RIFLE: Risk/Injury/Failure/Loss/ESRD; AKIN: modified, 3 stages; tested frequently in exam vignettes (NEET PG trend)
Q84. McDonald criteria are used for diagnosis of:
a) Multiple sclerosis (dissemination in time + space)
b) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Guillain-Barré syndrome
Answer: A - McDonald 2017 criteria; MRI shows T2/FLAIR lesions in periventricular, cortical/juxtacortical, infratentorial, or spinal cord (NEET PG trend)
Q85. Type 1 respiratory failure vs Type 2:
a) Type 1: hypoxemia only (PO2 <60); Type 2: hypoxemia + hypercapnia (PCO2 >45)
b) Type 1: hypercapnia; Type 2: hypoxemia
c) Type 1: both hypoxemic + hypercapnic
d) Same - just different terminology
Answer: A - Type 1 = pump failure is absent (V/Q mismatch or shunt); Type 2 = pump failure (neuromuscular, COPD)
Q86. Myasthenia gravis: Edrophonium (Tensilon) test works by:
a) Stimulating nicotinic receptors directly
b) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase → temporary increase in ACh → brief improvement
c) Blocking muscarinic receptors
d) Acting on NMDA receptors
Answer: B - Short-acting AChE inhibitor; improvement in ptosis/weakness = positive; anti-AChR antibody is diagnostic
Q87. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) - most specific antibody:
a) ANA (most sensitive but not specific)
b) Anti-Smith (Sm) antibody (most specific)
c) Anti-dsDNA (high titer suggests active disease, nephritis)
d) Anti-Ro/SSA
Answer: B - Anti-Sm is MOST SPECIFIC for SLE; anti-dsDNA is specific AND correlates with disease activity
Q88. Nephrotic syndrome vs Nephritic syndrome - USMLE/NEET differentiator:
a) Nephrotic: hematuria + HTN + oliguria; Nephritic: massive proteinuria + edema + hypoalbuminemia
b) Nephrotic: massive proteinuria (>3.5g/day) + hypoalbuminemia + edema + hyperlipidemia; Nephritic: hematuria + HTN + oliguria + mild proteinuria
c) Both are the same condition
d) Nephrotic: always seen in children; Nephritic: always in adults
Answer: B - Classic distinction tested in EVERY NEET PG paper
Q89. Stroke thrombolysis with tPA (alteplase): Time window:
a) Within 3 hours only
b) Up to 4.5 hours from symptom onset (selected patients)
c) 24 hours
d) Any time within 48 hours
Answer: B - 0-3 hours: broad eligibility; 3-4.5 hours: additional exclusions (age >80, anticoagulants, severe stroke); mechanical thrombectomy up to 24 hours
Q90. Charcot's triad in acute cholangitis:
a) Fever + jaundice + right upper quadrant pain
b) Jaundice + pruritis + clay-colored stool
c) Abdominal pain + constipation + colicky pain
d) Ascending cholangitis symptoms + hypotension + confusion (Reynold's pentad)
Answer: A - Charcot's triad (fever + jaundice + RUQ pain); Reynold's pentad adds hypotension + confusion = severe
Q91. Leptospirosis (Weil's disease): Classic presentation with:
a) Only renal failure
b) Fever + jaundice + acute renal failure + hemorrhage (classic Weil's syndrome)
c) Pulmonary TB picture
d) Hepatitis B like presentation
Answer: B - Biphasis illness; conjunctival suffusion is characteristic; treat with doxycycline/penicillin
Q92. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) spirometry finding:
a) Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio (<0.70) that is NOT reversible after bronchodilator
b) Decreased FEV1/FVC with full reversibility (>12% and 200 mL)
c) Increased FEV1/FVC
d) Normal spirometry always
Answer: A - GOLD criteria: post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.70; asthma has reversible obstruction
Q93. Hyperthyroidism: Most common cause worldwide:
a) Toxic multinodular goiter
b) Graves' disease (TSH receptor antibody)
c) Toxic adenoma
d) Subacute (de Quervain's) thyroiditis
Answer: B - Graves' disease (Type II hypersensitivity, TSI/TRAb); pretibial myxedema; exophthalmos
Q94. Scleroderma (Systemic sclerosis): Antibody most specific for diffuse cutaneous SSc:
a) Anti-centromere (limited SSc/CREST)
b) Anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I) - diffuse SSc
c) Anti-Smith
d) Anti-Jo-1
Answer: B - Anti-Scl-70 = diffuse SSc (risk of ILD); anti-centromere = limited SSc/CREST (risk of PAH)
Q95. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes:
a) Microcytic anemia only
b) Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia + subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
c) Pure motor neuropathy
d) Only peripheral neuropathy
Answer: B - SACD: posterior + lateral column degeneration; B12 also needed for myelin synthesis; associated with pernicious anemia
Q96. Lead poisoning classic triad + treatment:
a) Abdominal colic + wrist/foot drop + basophilic stippling of RBCs; treat with DMSA or D-penicillamine
b) Cherry red discoloration
c) Pulmonary edema only
d) Only renal failure
Answer: A - Lead lines on gingiva (Burton's lines) and metaphyseal X-ray bands; blood lead level; chelation with DMSA (succimer) or EDTA
Q97. Cushing's syndrome diagnosis: Most sensitive screening test:
a) Random serum cortisol
b) 24-hour urinary free cortisol OR late-night salivary cortisol OR low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
c) CRH stimulation test
d) CT of adrenal glands
Answer: B - Three first-line tests; low-dose dex suppression test (1 mg overnight) is most convenient; cortisol >1.8 mcg/dL = positive
Q98. Rotterdam criteria for PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome) require:
a) 3 of 3: oligoovulation + hyperandrogenism + polycystic ovaries
b) 2 of 3: oligoovulation/anovulation + clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism + polycystic ovaries on US
c) Only hormonal criteria
d) Mandatory imaging
Answer: B - 2 out of 3 Rotterdam criteria; after excluding other causes (NEET PG tested as diagnostic criteria Q)
OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY (20 Questions)
Q99. Atonic PPH (Postpartum hemorrhage) management - surgical balloon tamponade:
a) Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
b) Bakri balloon
c) Foley catheter alone
d) Cook balloon only
Answer: B - Bakri balloon is used for uterine tamponade in atonic PPH unresponsive to medical management (NEET PG 2025)
Q100. Cord prolapse management:
a) Emergency CS + manual elevation of presenting part immediately
b) Wait for normal delivery
c) Tocolysis alone
d) Oxytocin augmentation
Answer: A - TRUE cord prolapse = obstetric emergency; hand elevates presenting part off cord; immediate CS (NEET PG 2025)
Q101. Adenomyosis: Investigation of choice:
a) Ultrasound only
b) MRI (most accurate for diagnosis)
c) Hysteroscopy
d) Laparoscopy
Answer: B - MRI shows junctional zone thickness >12 mm; "Swiss cheese" myometrium (NEET PG 2025)
Q102. Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI): Hormonal profile:
a) Low FSH, high estrogen
b) Elevated FSH (>25 IU/L on two occasions 4 weeks apart) + low AMH + low estrogen
c) Normal FSH + low progesterone
d) Normal AMH + elevated LH only
Answer: B - POI at <40 years; FSH >25 IU/L twice; treat with HRT until age 51 (NEET PG 2025)
Q103. McRoberts maneuver is used for:
a) Cord prolapse
b) Shoulder dystocia (flatten lordosis; rotate pubis superiorly to free anterior shoulder)
c) Face presentation
d) Brow presentation
Answer: B - First-line maneuver for shoulder dystocia; 40% success; suprapubic pressure added (NEET PG 2025)
Q104. Episiotomy closure: Correct sequence of layers:
a) Skin → vaginal mucosa → muscle
b) Vaginal mucosa → muscle (perineal body) → skin
c) Muscle only then skin
d) Fascial planes then mucosa
Answer: B - Standard episiotomy repair: vaginal epithelium first, then perineal muscles, then skin (NEET PG 2025)
Q105. Bishop score components (5 parameters):
a) Cervical dilation, effacement, station, consistency, position
b) Fetal presentation + dilation + station
c) Uterine contractions + dilation only
d) NST findings + dilation
Answer: A - Total 13 points; score >8 = favorable for induction; score <6 = cervical ripening needed
Q106. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: Treatment:
a) Methyldopa
b) Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) + early delivery at 37 weeks
c) Cholestyramine alone
d) Corticosteroids
Answer: B - UDCA reduces pruritis and improves LFTs; delivery at 37 weeks due to fetal risk of stillbirth
Q107. Gestational hypertension vs Preeclampsia:
a) Same condition, different names
b) Gestational HTN: BP >140/90 after 20 weeks without proteinuria; Preeclampsia: HTN + proteinuria (>300 mg/24hr) OR end-organ damage
c) Preeclampsia occurs before 20 weeks
d) Both require same management
Answer: B - Preeclampsia can occur without proteinuria if end-organ damage present (revised 2013 ACOG criteria)
Q108. HELLP syndrome: Components:
a) Hemolytic anemia + Elevated Liver enzymes + Low Platelets
b) Hemolysis + Elevated Lipids + Low Protein
c) Heart failure + Elevated LFTs + Low Platelets
d) Hepatitis + Elevated Liver + Leukopenia + Proteinuria
Answer: A - Complication of severe preeclampsia; treat with magnesium + delivery; corticosteroids if <34 weeks
Q109. Ovarian reserve: BEST single marker:
a) FSH level on day 3
b) Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) - does not vary with menstrual cycle
c) Antral follicle count alone
d) Estradiol level
Answer: B - AMH from granulosa cells; does not fluctuate across cycle; best single marker of ovarian reserve
Q110. Ca-125 tumor marker is elevated in (in decreasing specificity):
a) Only ovarian cancer
b) Epithelial ovarian cancer (serous type) + endometriosis + PID + fibroids + liver disease
c) Germ cell tumors only
d) Cervical cancer only
Answer: B - CA-125 is not specific; elevated in many conditions; used for monitoring, not primary screening
Q111. Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome:
a) 46,XY female with absent Mullerian structures
b) 46,XX with absent uterus and upper vagina but normal ovaries
c) Turner syndrome (45,X0)
d) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Answer: B - Primary amenorrhea; normal secondary sexual characteristics; 46,XX; absent uterus/upper vagina; ovaries normal
Q112. Most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding:
a) Endometrial carcinoma
b) Atrophic vaginitis/endometritis
c) Polyps
d) Fibroids
Answer: B - Atrophic vaginitis is most common cause; but MUST rule out endometrial carcinoma (10% of cases)
Q113. Danazol mechanism of action:
a) GnRH agonist
b) Synthetic androgen; inhibits pituitary gonadotropins; creates "pseudomenopause"
c) Pure progestogen
d) Estrogen receptor blocker
Answer: B - Used in endometriosis; causes atrophy of endometrial implants; side effects: androgenic (acne, hirsutism)
Q114. Clomiphene citrate mechanism:
a) Direct ovarian stimulation
b) Anti-estrogen at hypothalamus/pituitary → increased GnRH/FSH/LH → ovarian stimulation
c) Progesterone supplementation
d) Aromatase inhibitor
Answer: B - First-line ovulation induction for anovulatory infertility (PCOS); estrogen receptor antagonist at hypothalamus
Q115. Cervical carcinoma most common type and causative agent:
a) Adenocarcinoma; HPV 18
b) Squamous cell carcinoma (70%); HPV 16 and 18 (most common)
c) Small cell carcinoma; HPV 31
d) Clear cell carcinoma; DES exposure
Answer: B - SCC of cervix; HPV 16 (squamous) and 18 (adenocarcinoma); arises at squamocolumnar junction
Q116. GnRH analogues (agonists like leuprolide) when used continuously:
a) Stimulate pituitary continuously
b) Cause downregulation of GnRH receptors → medical castration (used in prostate Ca, endometriosis, fibroid)
c) Act as ovulation inducers
d) Increase estrogen levels
Answer: B - Initial "flare" then downregulation; castrate levels of sex hormones after 2-4 weeks
Q117. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) occurs in:
a) Dichorionic diamniotic twins
b) Monochorionic diamniotic or monoamniotic twins (shared placenta)
c) All twins
d) Only fraternal twins
Answer: B - Monochorionic twins share placenta; vascular anastomoses cause unequal blood flow; donor twin: growth restricted + oligohydramnios; recipient: polyhydramnios + cardiac overload
Q118. Term for delivery before 28 weeks, 28-37 weeks, and after 37 weeks:
a) All "premature" if before 40 weeks
b) <28 wks = extremely preterm; 28-32 = very preterm; 32-37 = late preterm; ≥37 = term
c) Only <34 weeks is premature
d) <36 weeks only
Answer: B - Standard WHO classification; know for NEET vignettes about surfactant therapy timing (≤34 weeks)
SURGERY (18 Questions)
Q119. Parks classification of anal fistula: Most common type:
a) Suprasphincteric
b) Extrasphincteric
c) Intersphincteric (most common ~70%)
d) Transsphincteric
Answer: C - Intersphincteric (Parks type I) = most common; treatment = fistulotomy (NEET PG 2025 Q195)
Q120. Courvoisier's law:
a) Dilated gallbladder with jaundice suggests gallstones
b) Palpable, non-tender distended gallbladder with jaundice = UNLIKELY due to stones (suggests carcinoma head of pancreas)
c) Only in hepatic causes
d) Applies to cholangitis
Answer: B - Courvoisier's sign: chronic stone disease causes GB fibrosis (cannot distend); painless jaundice + distended GB = malignant obstruction (NEET PG 2025)
Q121. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH): Most common type and side:
a) Morgagni hernia, right side
b) Bochdalek hernia, left side (85%)
c) Hiatus hernia
d) Traumatic hernia
Answer: B - Bochdalek (posterolateral defect); left side 85%; presents at birth with respiratory distress + scaphoid abdomen + bowel sounds in chest (NEET PG 2025)
Q122. Achalasia cardia: Gold standard investigation:
a) Barium swallow ("rat-tail" or "bird-beak" appearance)
b) High-resolution manometry (HRM)
c) Endoscopy
d) CT scan
Answer: B - HRM is gold standard; shows incomplete LES relaxation + absent peristalsis; barium swallow shows bird-beak (NEET PG 2025)
Q123. Diffuse axonal injury (DAI): Most common cause and imaging:
a) Hypertensive hemorrhage; CT shows blood
b) Road traffic accident deceleration injury; MRI (especially DWI/SWI) shows white matter hemorrhagic shearing
c) Penetrating injury
d) Only seen on PET scan
Answer: B - DAI: rotational deceleration; worst at grey-white matter junction, corpus callosum, brainstem; MRI > CT (NEET PG 2025)
Q124. In FAST (Focused Assessment Sonography in Trauma): Which spaces are examined?
a) Only peritoneum
b) Perihepatic (Morrison's pouch), perisplenic, pericardial, pelvic (pouch of Douglas)
c) Only retroperitoneum
d) Chest and abdomen only
Answer: B - 4 standard windows; Morrison's pouch (hepatorenal) is most sensitive; eFAST adds lung windows
Q125. Polydioxanone (PDS) suture characteristics:
a) Non-absorbable, braided
b) Absorbable monofilament; synthetic; maintains strength 6 weeks
c) Natural absorbable (collagen)
d) Non-absorbable monofilament
Answer: B - PDS = synthetic absorbable monofilament; used for abdominal wall closure; absorbs by hydrolysis (NEET PG 2025 Q197)
Q126. Breast cancer inflammatory stage: Peau d'orange + erythema + warmth = which stage?
a) Stage IIA
b) Stage IIB
c) Stage IIIB (inflammatory breast cancer is T4d)
d) Stage IV
Answer: C - Inflammatory breast carcinoma = T4d = Stage IIIB; peau d'orange due to dermal lymphatic invasion (NEET PG 2025 Q191)
Q127. Sentinel lymph node biopsy: First-line for axillary staging in early breast cancer (clinically node-negative):
a) Complete axillary dissection always
b) Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) using blue dye + radioactive tracer
c) CT staging only
d) MRI axilla
Answer: B - SLNB reduces lymphedema; if positive, may proceed to axillary dissection depending on tumor burden
Q128. Carotid body tumor "Lyre's sign":
a) Carotid artery bifurcation splaying on angiography
b) Calcification on X-ray
c) Absent pulse
d) CT finding of calcification
Answer: A - Carotid body tumor (paraganglioma): pulsatile neck mass at angle of jaw; splaying of ICA/ECA = "lyre sign" or "goblet sign" (NEET PG 2025 Q192)
Q129. Richter's hernia contains:
a) Entire bowel circumference in hernia sac
b) Only a knuckle of bowel wall (one side of bowel wall), NOT the full lumen
c) Meckel's diverticulum
d) Appendix
Answer: B - Can strangulate without obstruction (partial lumen involved)
Q130. Glasgow coma scale: Minimum and maximum scores:
a) 0-15
b) 3-15
c) 1-14
d) 0-10
Answer: B - GCS 3-15; 3 = deep coma/death; 15 = normal; E4V5M6 = 15; intubate if GCS ≤8
Q131. Meckel's diverticulum "Rule of 2s":
a) 2 feet from ileocecal valve, 2 inches long, 2% of population, presents in first 2 years, 2 types of ectopic tissue
b) 2 cm from cecum, 20 cm long
c) 2 feet from cecum, 2 cm wide
d) Only in adults
Answer: A - True diverticulum; contains gastric/pancreatic ectopic tissue; presents with painless rectal bleeding in children
Q132. Venous ulcer characteristics:
a) Painful, punched-out, on tips of toes
b) Painless (relatively), shallow, at medial malleolus; associated with lipodermatosclerosis + varicosities
c) Deep + tendon exposed
d) Only over pressure points
Answer: B - Venous ulcer = gaiter area (medial malleolus); arterial ulcer = punched-out + painful + toes; diabetic = neuropathic + plantar (NEET PG 2025 Q196)
Q133. Preoperative preparation for pheo: ORDER matters:
a) Beta-blocker first
b) Alpha-blocker (phenoxybenzamine) FIRST for 10-14 days, then add beta-blocker if needed
c) Calcium channel blocker alone
d) Clonidine only
Answer: B - Alpha BEFORE beta; if beta given first → paradoxical severe hypertension (NEET PG 2025 Q188)
Q134. Superior mesenteric artery syndrome: Caused by:
a) Atherosclerosis
b) Compression of 3rd part of duodenum between SMA and aorta (decreased fat pad) → high intestinal obstruction
c) Mesenteric ischemia
d) Pancreatitis
Answer: B - Weight loss, prolonged supine position, scoliosis correction; barium shows "cut-off" at 3rd part of duodenum
Q135. Spigelian hernia location:
a) Through femoral ring
b) Lateral to rectus abdominis at semilunar line (through Spigelian fascia)
c) Through obturator foramen
d) Lumbar triangle
Answer: B - Interparietal hernia; interparietal between abdominal muscles; difficult to diagnose clinically
Q136. Damage control surgery (DCS) principle in trauma:
a) Complete surgery in one sitting
b) Abbreviated surgery to control hemorrhage + contamination → ICU resuscitation → definitive repair
c) Observation only
d) Only for penetrating trauma
Answer: B - "Lethal triad" of trauma: hypothermia + acidosis + coagulopathy; DCS prevents this; pack + temporary closure + ICU first
PSM / COMMUNITY MEDICINE (16 Questions)
Q137. Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM): What does color change indicate?
a) Vaccine has been opened
b) Cumulative heat exposure has exceeded acceptable threshold (inner square becomes darker than outer circle = discard)
c) Cold chain was maintained
d) Vaccine is expired
Answer: B - VVM inner square turns dark = freeze-VVM; discard if inner square ≥ outer circle color (NEET PG 2025)
Q138. Lead-time bias in cancer screening:
a) Artificially improved survival statistics because detection happens earlier in disease course, NOT because treatment is better
b) Selection bias
c) Recall bias
d) Measurement bias
Answer: A - Survival appears longer but only because "timer starts earlier" with early detection, not actual life extension (NEET PG 2025)
Q139. Nalgonda technique is used for:
a) Water disinfection with chlorine
b) Defluoridation of water (excess fluoride areas)
c) Deironation of water
d) Desalination
Answer: B - Alum + lime + soda ash → flocculation removes fluoride; used in endemic fluorosis areas (NEET PG 2025)
Q140. Cluster RCT differs from individual RCT in:
a) Uses animals instead of humans
b) Unit of randomization is a group/community (village, school) not individual
c) Not a true randomized trial
d) Observational study
Answer: B - Avoids contamination between arms; design effect (DEFF) reduces effective sample size; intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC) matters (NEET PG 2025)
Q141. Herd immunity threshold formula:
a) 1 - (1/R0); where R0 = basic reproduction number
b) 1/R0
c) R0 × serial interval
d) Cannot be calculated
Answer: A - Herd immunity threshold = 1 - (1/R0); for measles (R0~15): 1-1/15 = ~93% coverage needed
Q142. Under-5 mortality rate (U5MR): Definition:
a) Deaths per 1000 live births in first year of life
b) Deaths per 1000 live births between 0-5 years of age
c) Deaths per 1000 population
d) Stillbirths + neonatal deaths
Answer: B - U5MR = (deaths <5 years / live births) × 1000; MDG/SDG target indicator
Q143. Sensitivity vs Specificity:
a) Sensitivity = TP/(TP+TN); Specificity = TN/(TN+FP)
b) Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) [true positive rate]; Specificity = TN/(TN+FP) [true negative rate]
c) Sensitivity = power; Specificity = alpha
d) Always the same value
Answer: B - High sensitivity = good screening test (few false negatives); high specificity = good confirmatory test (few false positives)
Q144. Maternal mortality ratio (MMR) definition:
a) Maternal deaths per 1000 live births
b) Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
c) Maternal deaths per 1000 women aged 15-49
d) Maternal deaths per 1000 pregnancies
Answer: B - India's MMR target: <70/100,000 live births (SDG goal); current India MMR ~97 (2018-20)
Q145. Directly Observed Treatment Short-course (DOTS) for tuberculosis: Rifampicin used throughout because:
a) Only drug active in all phases
b) Sterilizing drug + prevents relapse when used in continuation phase
c) Prevents resistance to isoniazid only
d) Cheapest drug
Answer: B - Rifampicin + pyrazinamide are sterilizing drugs; important for relapse prevention; rifampicin throughout reduces relapse rate
Q146. ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) role: Which program gave birth to ASHA?
a) NRHM (National Rural Health Mission) 2005 - Janani Suraksha Yojana
b) National Urban Health Mission
c) District Primary Health Centre
d) AYUSH mission
Answer: A - ASHA introduced under NRHM 2005; JSY incentivizes institutional delivery; 1 ASHA per 1000 rural population
Q147. Attack rate of a disease during outbreak = :
a) New cases / total population × 1000
b) New cases during outbreak period / population at risk at start × 100
c) Total deaths / total cases × 100
d) Same as case fatality rate
Answer: B - Attack rate is an incidence proportion (%) used for acute disease outbreaks; secondary attack rate for contacts
Q148. Prevalence vs Incidence relationship:
a) Prevalence = Incidence × Duration of illness (only for chronic, stable diseases)
b) Prevalence is always higher than incidence
c) Incidence includes old cases
d) No mathematical relationship
Answer: A - P = I × D (when disease is in steady state); for short-duration diseases: incidence ≈ prevalence
Q149. National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) total fertility rate (TFR) for India:
a) 2.8
b) 2.0 (below replacement level for first time)
c) 3.5
d) 1.5
Answer: B - NFHS-5 (2019-21): India TFR = 2.0, below replacement fertility of 2.1 for the first time
Q150. Absolute risk reduction (ARR) and Number Needed to Treat (NNT):
a) ARR = control rate − treatment rate; NNT = 1/ARR
b) ARR = treatment rate / control rate
c) NNT = 1/relative risk
d) ARR is always expressed as ratio
Answer: A - Key biostatistics: NNT = 1/ARR; lower NNT = more effective treatment; tested frequently in PSM/clinical questions
Q151. Hantavirus is transmitted by:
a) Mosquito bite
b) Rodent excreta (inhalation of infected urine/feces/saliva aerosols) - NO person-to-person
c) Tick bite
d) Blood transfusion
Answer: B - Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (Americas) or HFRS (Asia/Europe); no person-to-person transmission (except Andes virus)
Q152. Salk vaccine (IPV) vs Sabin vaccine (OPV):
a) Both are live attenuated
b) Salk = killed (IPV) - parenteral; Sabin = live attenuated (OPV) - oral; India switched to IPV in 2016 for scheduled immunization
c) Both are killed
d) Both are oral
Answer: B - OPV can cause VAPP (vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis) at rate ~1/750,000 first doses
PAEDIATRICS (5 Questions)
Q153. Kawasaki disease diagnostic criteria (CRASH):
a) C = Conjunctivitis (bilateral non-purulent); R = Rash (polymorphous); A = Adenopathy (cervical); S = Strawberry tongue/mouth changes; H = Hand-Foot changes (edema/desquamation)
b) Only fever + rash
c) Requires all 6 criteria
d) Rash + joint pain + elevated CRP
Answer: A - CRASH mnemonic; fever ≥5 days + 4 of 5 CRASH criteria; coronary artery aneurysm = most feared complication; treat with IVIG + aspirin
Q154. Congenital hypothyroidism screening: Newborn screening uses:
a) Serum T3 level
b) TSH heel-prick blood spot at 48-72 hours of life
c) T4 only
d) Clinical signs only
Answer: B - Neonatal screening for CH; elevated TSH = CH; normal "cretinism" face at birth; treat with levothyroxine ASAP
Q155. Intussusception classic triad in infants:
a) Fever + vomiting + diarrhea
b) Colicky pain + currant-jelly stools + sausage-shaped mass in right iliac fossa
c) Projectile vomiting + constipation
d) Bilious vomiting + distension
Answer: B - Most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infants 6 months - 2 years; ultrasound shows "doughnut sign"; air enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic
Q156. Age at which fontanelle (anterior) closes:
a) 3-6 months
b) 9-12 months
c) 18 months (12-18 months is normal range)
d) 24-36 months
Answer: C - Anterior fontanelle: 12-18 months; posterior fontanelle closes at 6-8 weeks; bulging = raised ICP; sunken = dehydration
Q157. Vitamin D deficiency rickets: Classic X-ray finding at wrist:
a) Dense transverse lines (Harris lines)
b) Cupping + fraying + splaying of metaphysis + widened physis
c) Periosteal reaction
d) Pathological fracture only
Answer: B - Nutritional rickets: cupped/frayed/splayed metaphysis; "rosary" at costo-chondral junction; bowing of long bones
ORTHOPAEDICS (5 Questions)
Q158. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE): Classic presentation:
a) 4-8-year-old child with avascular necrosis of femoral head
b) Obese adolescent (10-16 years) with hip pain/limp + externally rotated leg; X-ray: "ice cream falling off cone"
c) Elderly woman with hip fracture
d) Toddler with developmental dysplasia
Answer: B - SCFE: epiphysis slips posterior-medially on metaphysis; diagnose with AP + frog-leg lateral X-ray; treat with screw fixation (NEET PG 2025 Q127)
Q159. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD): Age group vs SCFE:
a) Adolescents, obese
b) Children 4-8 years; avascular necrosis of femoral head; antalgic gait
c) Neonates
d) Adults >50 years
Answer: B - LCPD: idiopathic AVN in younger, leaner children; "crescent sign" (subchondral fracture) on X-ray; conservative management (NEET PG 2025 Q127)
Q160. Colles' fracture: Describes:
a) Fracture of distal ulna with dorsal displacement
b) Transverse fracture of distal radius within 2.5 cm of joint with dorsal tilt + radial shortening + dorsal displacement ("dinner fork" deformity)
c) Smith's fracture (volar tilt)
d) Monteggia fracture
Answer: B - FOOSH (fall on outstretched hand); Colles = dorsal; Smith = volar ("garden spade" deformity)
Q161. Compartment syndrome: Pathological feature and treatment:
a) Venous obstruction only
b) Increased pressure within osteofascial compartment → ischemia; treat with emergency fasciotomy
c) Only arterial injury
d) Conservative management always
Answer: B - "5 P's": Pain (with passive stretch), Pallor, Paresthesia, Paralysis, Pulselessness; fasciotomy within 6 hours
Q162. Trigger finger (stenosing tenosynovitis): Most commonly affects:
a) Ring finger and middle finger
b) Ring finger (4th digit) most common
c) Index finger
d) Little finger
Answer: B - Ring finger most common in adults; middle finger in children; triggered by stenosis at A1 pulley; conservative (steroid injection) or surgical release
OPHTHALMOLOGY (5 Questions)
Q163. Glaucoma: Optic disc changes in chronic open-angle glaucoma:
a) Swollen disc (papilledema)
b) Cup-to-disc ratio >0.6; nasal shift of vessels; notching of neuroretinal rim; peripapillary atrophy
c) Flame hemorrhages only
d) Pale disc without cupping
Answer: B - Increased C:D ratio >0.6 suspicious; inferior > superior > nasal > temporal loss (ISNT rule reversed); test: visual fields (Humphrey)
Q164. Cherry-red spot on macula: Classic causes:
a) Diabetic retinopathy
b) Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) + Tay-Sachs disease (storage disease); also Niemann-Pick
c) Hypertensive retinopathy
d) Papilledema
Answer: B - CRAO: macula appears red (preserved choroidal supply) against white ischemic retina; Tay-Sachs: GM2 ganglioside storage
Q165. Kayser-Fleischer rings: Location and condition:
a) Macula; macular degeneration
b) Corneal periphery (Descemet's membrane); Wilson's disease (copper deposition)
c) Lens; cataract
d) Conjunctiva; pterygium
Answer: B - Brown-green rings at corneal limbus; Wilson's disease; also seen in primary biliary cholangitis rarely
Q166. Retinoblastoma: Presentation and genetic feature:
a) Red reflex preserved
b) Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex) + strabismus; bilateral cases: RB1 gene mutation (chromosome 13q14); autosomal dominant hereditary type
c) Only in adults
d) Diagnosed by MRI only
Answer: B - RB1 is tumor suppressor gene; bilateral/multifocal = hereditary; treatment depends on laterality and stage; enucleation vs photocoagulation
Q167. Vitamin A deficiency ocular findings (in order of progression):
a) Cataract → glaucoma
b) Night blindness (first) → Bitot's spots → xerophthalmia → corneal ulceration → keratomalacia (severe, irreversible)
c) Only corneal involvement
d) Papilledema
Answer: B - WHO staging: XN = night blindness; X1A = conjunctival xerosis; X1B = Bitot's spots; X2 = corneal xerosis; X3A/B = keratomalacia
ENT (5 Questions)
Q168. Otosclerosis: Audiometric finding:
a) Sensorineural hearing loss
b) Conductive hearing loss with absent stapedial reflex; Carhart's notch at 2000 Hz on audiogram
c) Mixed hearing loss
d) Normal audiogram
Answer: B - Abnormal bone remodeling of otic capsule; family history; treat with stapedectomy (NEET PG 2025 Q1 recall image concept)
Q169. Acoustic neuroma (Vestibular schwannoma): Most common symptom:
a) Vertigo
b) Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss + tinnitus; MRI with gadolinium shows "ice cream cone" at IAM
c) Conductive hearing loss
d) Facial nerve palsy first
Answer: B - Arises from superior vestibular nerve; CN VIII first affected; MRI is gold standard; usually slow growing
Q170. Trotter's triad (sinus of Morgagni carcinoma / Nasopharyngeal carcinoma):
a) Nasal obstruction + epistaxis + cervical lymphadenopathy
b) Unilateral conductive hearing loss + ipsilateral trigeminal neuralgia + palatal palsy (pterygoid + levator veli palatini)
c) Hoarseness + dysphagia + neck mass
d) Anosmia + headache + nasal polyps
Answer: B - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Trotter's triad: conductive deafness (Eustachian tube obstruction) + palatal palsy + trigeminal neuralgia
Q171. Rinne test positive vs negative:
a) Positive Rinne = AC > BC = NORMAL or sensorineural hearing loss
b) Negative Rinne = BC > AC = Conductive hearing loss (>25-40 dB loss)
c) Rinne positive always indicates sensorineural loss
d) BC = AC always
Answer: A - Rinne positive (normal): AC longer than BC (AC > BC); Rinne negative: BC > AC = conductive hearing loss (512 Hz tuning fork)
Q172. Nasal polyps: Most common type:
a) Antrochoanal polyp (young adults, single, from maxillary sinus)
b) Ethmoidal polyps (bilateral, multiple, associated with allergy, aspirin sensitivity, asthma - Samter's triad)
c) Sphenoid sinus polyp
d) Frontal polyp
Answer: B - Ethmoidal polyps = most common bilateral; Samter's triad = aspirin hypersensitivity + asthma + nasal polyps
DERMATOLOGY (8 Questions)
Q173. Psoriasis classic histology finding:
a) Acantholysis
b) Munro's microabscesses (neutrophils in parakeratotic stratum corneum) + suprapapillary plate thinning + Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding)
c) Eosinophilic spongiosis
d) Vacuolar degeneration at DEJ
Answer: B - Psoriasis: silvery-white scales on extensor surfaces + scalp; Auspitz sign pathognomonic; Koebner phenomenon; treat with biologics (anti-TNF, anti-IL-17, anti-IL-23)
Q174. Pemphigus vulgaris vs Pemphigoid:
a) Both are the same
b) Pemphigus vulgaris: intraepidermal acantholysis (suprabasal split); anti-desmoglein 1&3; NIKOLSKY POSITIVE; oral mucosa involved first; Pemphigoid: subepidermal blister; anti-BP230/BP180; Nikolsky NEGATIVE; tense blisters; rare oral
c) Pemphigoid has Nikolsky positive
d) Only elderly patients get pemphigus
Answer: B - Key examiner favorite: acantholysis (Tzanck: "tombstone" basal cells) vs subepidermal (tense, fluid-filled, elderly)
Q175. Auspitz sign is seen in:
a) Lichen planus
b) Psoriasis (pinpoint bleeding when scale is removed, exposing dilated dermal capillaries)
c) Pemphigus
d) Pityriasis rosea
Answer: B - Multiple choice trap: Auspitz = psoriasis; Koebner = psoriasis, lichen planus, vitiligo; Wickham striae = lichen planus
Q176. Darier's disease (keratosis follicularis): Genetic defect:
a) Connexin mutation
b) ATP2A2 gene (SERCA2 pump) mutation → defective desmoglein processing
c) Collagen gene mutation
d) Fibrillin mutation (Marfan)
Answer: B - ATP2A2 (SERCA2); autosomal dominant; greasy, warty, keratotic papules in seborrheic areas; characteristic histology: corps ronds + grains
Q177. Target lesions (iris lesions) are characteristic of:
a) Lichen planus
b) Erythema multiforme (EM); central dusky zone + lighter ring + outer erythematous ring
c) Psoriasis
d) Pityriasis rosea
Answer: B - EM: trigger (HSV, Mycoplasma, drugs); target lesions on palms/soles + oral involvement in EM major = Stevens-Johnson overlap
Q178. Dermatitis herpetiformis: Associated with:
a) Breast cancer
b) Celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy); IgA deposition at dermal papillae; intensely pruritic vesicles on extensor surfaces
c) HIV
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: B - IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase; treat with gluten-free diet + dapsone; associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8
Q179. Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS syndrome): Most commonly caused by:
a) NSAIDs
b) Anticonvulsants (carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital) and allopurinol
c) Antibiotics only
d) Antihistamines
Answer: B - DRESS: 2-8 weeks after drug; fever + extensive rash + eosinophilia + lymphadenopathy + internal organ involvement; stop drug; systemic corticosteroids
Q180. Characteristic finding of leprosy (Hansen's disease) on skin biopsy:
a) Non-caseating granuloma with Bacilli in LL type
b) Tuberculoid: epithelioid granuloma at neuro-vascular bundle with few/absent AFB; Lepromatous: "Virchow cells" (foamy macrophages) with numerous AFB (Wade-Fite stain) + "Grenz zone" preserved
c) Liquefactive necrosis
d) Vacuolar change only
Answer: B - Grenz zone (clear subepidermal zone) = lepromatous; granuloma touching epidermis = tuberculoid; BI (bacterial index) high in LL, low in TT
FORENSIC MEDICINE (6 Questions)
Q181. Rigor mortis: Timing in temperate climate:
a) Appears in 1-2 hours; maximum at 6-8 hours; passes off in 24-36 hours (starts in jaw → descends)
b) Only in limbs; appears at 12 hours
c) Permanent stiffening
d) Appears 6 hours; complete at 24 hours; disappears at 72 hours
Answer: A - "Nysten's law": starts in jaw → neck → trunk → limbs; cadaveric spasm ≠ rigor mortis
Q182. Pugilistic attitude in burns is due to:
a) Postmortem position
b) Heat coagulation of proteins causing flexion of limbs (muscles contract, flexors stronger); NOT indicative of ante-mortem self-defense
c) Ante-mortem defense posture
d) Drowning artifact
Answer: B - "Boxing stance" from heat; examiners often ask: "boxer's attitude in fire victim" = heat effect, NOT self-defense
Q183. Hypostasis (Livor mortis) is fixed after:
a) 2-4 hours
b) 6-8 hours (shifts if repositioned before fixation); fixed by 8-12 hours (cannot shift)
c) 24 hours
d) Immediately after death
Answer: B - Blood settles in dependent areas; pinkish-red in CO poisoning (carboxyhemoglobin); cherry-red = CO
Q184. Magistrate's inquest is compulsory in India for:
a) All natural deaths
b) Dowry deaths, suicidal deaths with suspicious circumstances; deaths in police custody
c) Only accidental deaths
d) All unnatural deaths
Answer: B - Under CrPC: Magistrate inquest for dowry deaths, deaths in police custody, judicial custody; ordinary deaths = police inquest
Q185. Adipocere formation: Conditions favoring:
a) Dry, cold environment
b) Warm, moist environment (water/wet soil) - conversion of body fat to hydroxy fatty acids (saponification); preserves body shape
c) Only in air
d) Only in salt water
Answer: B - "Grave wax" or saponification; delays decomposition; helps identify cause of death months/years later
Q186. Blood alcohol level (BAL): Legal limit for driving in India:
a) 50 mg/100 mL
b) 30 mg/100 mL blood (0.03%)
c) 80 mg/100 mL
d) 100 mg/100 mL
Answer: B - India: 30 mg% blood (Motor Vehicles Act 1988, amended 2019); 30 mg/100 mL = 0.03 g/dL
RADIOLOGY (5 Questions)
Q187. "Air bronchogram" sign on chest X-ray indicates:
a) Emphysema
b) Air-filled bronchi visible within consolidated (airspace-filling) lung; seen in lobar pneumonia, ARDS, pulmonary edema
c) Pleural effusion
d) Pneumothorax
Answer: B - Air bronchogram = airspace disease (consolidation) around the bronchi; not seen in pure pleural or interstitial disease
Q188. "Soap bubble" appearance on X-ray of long bone metaphysis in a child:
a) Osteosarcoma (sunburst pattern)
b) Giant cell tumor (epiphysis, adults)
c) Aneurysmal bone cyst
d) Simple bone cyst
Answer: C - Aneurysmal bone cyst: "soap bubble" + eccentric + expansile metaphyseal lesion; contains blood-filled cavities; treated with curettage + bone graft
Q189. "Sunburst" periosteal reaction on X-ray:
a) Giant cell tumor
b) Osteosarcoma (most aggressive periosteal reaction)
c) Chondrosarcoma
d) Ewing's sarcoma (onion-skin)
Answer: B - Osteosarcoma: sunburst + Codman's triangle (elevated periosteum); metaphysis of distal femur/proximal tibia; Ewing's: onion-peel/laminated
Q190. CT head: "Hyperdense crescent-shaped" collection along inner table of skull:
a) Epidural hematoma (biconvex/lenticular)
b) Subdural hematoma (follows brain contour, crosses suture lines)
c) Subarachnoid hemorrhage (fills cisterns)
d) Intracerebral hemorrhage
Answer: B - SDH: bridging veins rupture; crosses sutures; crescent-shaped; EDH: middle meningeal artery; doesn't cross sutures; biconvex (lens-shaped)
Q191. "String of pearls" sign on plain X-ray of abdomen:
a) Volvulus
b) Small bowel obstruction (SBO) - air trapped between valvulae conniventes
c) Large bowel obstruction
d) Intussusception
Answer: B - Multiple small air pockets trapped by valvulae conniventes in distended small bowel loops = "string of pearls" in SBO
Q192. Chest X-ray: "Bat wing" or "butterfly" perihilar opacity suggests:
a) Pulmonary tuberculosis
b) Pulmonary edema (cardiogenic - bilateral perihilar, gravity-dependent)
c) Pneumonia
d) Pleural effusion
Answer: B - Bilateral perihilar "bat wing" opacities = alveolar pulmonary edema; also seen on X-ray as "Kerley B lines" = interstitial edema
ANAESTHESIA (4 Questions)
Q193. Malignant hyperthermia: Caused by and treated with:
a) Suxamethonium overdose; treat with atropine
b) Volatile anesthetics (halothane, isoflurane) + suxamethonium → RyR1 mutation → uncontrolled calcium release → hyperthermia + rigidity; treat with DANTROLENE
c) Nitrous oxide only
d) Propofol infusion syndrome
Answer: B - MH: autosomal dominant RYR1 mutation; hyperkalemia + rhabdomyolysis + fever; dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg IV
Q194. Suxamethonium (succinylcholine) contraindications:
a) Renal failure only
b) Burns (after 48 hours), crush injuries, denervation injuries, hyperkalemia risk; ALSO malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients
c) Hypertension
d) Pediatric patients generally
Answer: B - Upregulation of extra-junctional ACh receptors → massive K+ release → cardiac arrest; safe in first 24-48 hours post-burn only
Q195. Bispectral index (BIS) monitoring: BIS 40-60 indicates:
a) Awake
b) General anesthesia (surgical anesthesia level)
c) Deep sedation
d) Emergence
Answer: B - BIS scale: 100 = fully awake; 60-80 = deep sedation; 40-60 = general anesthesia; <40 = deep hypnosis/burst suppression
Q196. Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS): Occurs with:
a) Single dose propofol
b) Prolonged high-dose propofol infusion (>48 hours, >5 mg/kg/hr) → metabolic acidosis + rhabdomyolysis + cardiac failure + hypertriglyceridemia
c) Intrathecal propofol
d) Elderly patients only
Answer: B - PRIS: rare but fatal; green urine (lipiduria); seen in ICU patients on prolonged propofol sedation
ADDITIONAL HIGH-YIELD CLINICAL INTEGRATORS (4 Questions completing 200)
Q197. Meningitis CSF findings: Bacterial vs Viral vs TB:
| Feature | Bacterial | Viral | TB |
|---|
| Appearance | Turbid/purulent | Clear | Cobweb clot |
| Cells | PMN (100-10,000) | Lymphocytes | Lymphocytes |
| Protein | Very high (>100) | Normal/slight ↑ | High (100-500) |
| Glucose | Very low (<45) | Normal | Low (very) |
| Opening pressure | High | Normal/mild ↑ | Elevated |
Answer: Bacterial = PMN + very low glucose; Viral = lymphocytes + normal glucose; TB = lymphocytes + very low glucose + cobweb clot on standing
Q198. "All or nothing" law in cardiac muscle vs skeletal muscle:
a) Cardiac: all-or-nothing (syncytium via gap junctions); Skeletal: graded response (summation, tetanus)
b) Both are identical
c) Cardiac is graded; skeletal is all-or-nothing
d) No difference
Answer: A - Cardiac syncytium via intercalated discs/gap junctions; cannot undergo tetanic contraction (due to long refractory period); skeletal can summate
Q199. "Warfarin embryopathy" causes which fetal defects (weeks 6-9)?
a) Neural tube defects
b) Nasal hypoplasia + stippled epiphyses (chondrodysplasia punctata) + ophthalmic defects; "Fetal warfarin syndrome"
c) Limb reduction defects
d) Cardiac defects only
Answer: B - Warfarin crosses placenta; AVOID in 1st trimester (6-12 weeks); use heparin throughout OR switch to heparin in 1st trimester; avoid near delivery (neonatal hemorrhage)
Q200. TORCH infections: Which causes "blueberry muffin" rash in newborn?
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) Rubella (also causes congenital rubella syndrome: cataracts + PDA + sensorineural deafness; Gregg's triad)
c) CMV only
d) Herpes simplex
Answer: B - Blueberry muffin = extramedullary hematopoiesis (rubella + CMV); Rubella also causes "salt-and-pepper" retinopathy; CMV = periventricular calcifications; Toxo = "ring calcifications" + hydrocephalus
PART 2 - LAST 5-YEAR RECALLED IMAGE-BASED QUESTIONS (2022-2026)
These are the most frequently recalled visual/image-based questions from NEET PG exams 2022-2025.
ANATOMY - Image Recalls
IMG-1 [NEET PG 2025]. Image shows jugular foramen with structure "A" labeled.
Q: Which nerve does NOT pass through structure "A"?
Options: CN IX / CN X / CN XI / CN XII
Answer: CN XII (Hypoglossal) - passes through hypoglossal canal, NOT jugular foramen
IMG-2 [NEET PG 2025]. Image shows embryological defect in aortic arch.
Q: The defect shown relates to which aortic arch?
Answer: Right 4th aortic arch - aberrant right subclavian artery
IMG-3 [NEET PG 2025]. Image shows origin site of triceps brachii long head.
Q: What is the origin site?
Answer: Infraglenoid tubercle of scapula (trap: supraglenoid = biceps long head)
IMG-4 [NEET PG 2022-23]. CT cross-section of brain at basal ganglia level.
Q: Identify the thalamus / lenticular nucleus / caudate nucleus
Answer: Know the "target" appearance; thalamus is posterior-medial; lenticular nucleus (putamen + globus pallidus) is lateral
SURGERY - Image Recalls
IMG-5 [NEET PG 2025]. X-ray of lumbar spine showing anterior slippage of one vertebra on another.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Spondylolisthesis (NOT spondylolysis which is pars defect without slippage) (NEET PG 2025 Q126)
IMG-6 [NEET PG 2025]. X-ray of hip in an 11-year-old with painful limp.
Showed avascular necrosis changes / femoral head flattening
Answer: Perthes disease (LCPD) in younger child vs SCFE in older obese adolescent (Q127)
IMG-7 [NEET PG 2025]. Image of surgical knot used in procedures.
Q: What type of knot?
Answer: Surgeon's knot (first throw has double loop for added friction vs square knot = single loops)
IMG-8 [NEET PG 2025]. Image of anorectal fistula tract (Parks classification).
Q: Identify the type.
Answer: Intersphincteric (most common; tract between internal and external sphincter)
IMG-9 [NEET PG 2025]. Barium swallow image showing "bird-beak" tapering at lower esophagus.
Q: Gold standard investigation to confirm diagnosis?
Answer: Esophageal manometry (diagnosis of achalasia cardia)
IMG-10 [NEET PG 2025]. MRI image of brain - extra-axial mass with dural tail.
Q: Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Meningioma (dural tail sign; hyperdense on CT; uniformly enhancing on MRI)
IMG-11 [NEET PG 2025]. Image showing patient with peau d'orange of breast + diffuse erythema.
Q: TNM stage?
Answer: Stage IIIB (T4d = inflammatory carcinoma; any N, M0)
IMG-12 [NEET PG 2025]. Image of neck mass at angle of jaw - pulsatile, mobile side-to-side not up-down; angiogram shows carotid bifurcation splaying.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Carotid body tumor (paraganglioma) - "Lyre sign" = ICA and ECA splayed apart
IMG-13 [NEET PG 2025]. Image of fingertip changes showing blackened/necrotic digits.
Q: Wet gangrene vs dry gangrene vs Raynaud's?
Answer: Wet gangrene (if edematous, infected, foul-smelling) vs Dry gangrene (mummified, shrunken, demarcated line)
IMG-14 [NEET PG 2023-24]. Histology showing "sunburst" pattern + aggressive periosteal reaction in distal femur.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Osteosarcoma (Codman triangle + sunburst periosteal reaction; metaphysis of long bones)
IMG-15 [NEET PG 2022]. Chest X-ray with tracheal deviation + absent lung markings on one side.
Q: Tension pneumothorax or simple pneumothorax? Management?
Answer: Tension pneumothorax (trachea deviates AWAY from side of lesion); emergency needle decompression 2nd ICS MCL
PATHOLOGY - Image Recalls
IMG-16 [NEET PG 2025]. Peripheral blood smear showing hypersegmented neutrophils + oval macrocytes.
Q: Deficiency?
Answer: B12 or Folate deficiency (megaloblastic anemia; hypersegmented neutrophils = 5-lobe nucleus in >5% of PMNs)
IMG-17 [NEET PG 2025]. Histology showing "owl-eye" binucleate cells in lymph node.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Reed-Sternberg cells = Hodgkin lymphoma; CD15+, CD30+
IMG-18 [NEET PG 2024]. Histology showing nests of cells with abundant cytoplasm in adrenal medulla.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Pheochromocytoma (Zellballen pattern; chromogranin A positive; S100 sustentacular cells)
IMG-19 [NEET PG 2023]. Histology showing "fried egg" cells / "chicken-wire" capillaries.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Oligodendroglioma (round cells with clear cytoplasm "fried egg" artifact; calcifications; 1p/19q codeletion)
IMG-20 [NEET PG 2022-23]. Congo red stain showing apple-green birefringence under polarized light.
Q: Diagnosis + condition?
Answer: Amyloidosis (Congo red = orange-red normally; apple-green under polarized = pathognomonic for amyloid)
IMG-21 [NEET PG 2024]. Histology showing "signet ring" cells.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Gastric adenocarcinoma (linitis plastica / diffuse type) - mucin pushes nucleus to periphery
IMG-22 [NEET PG 2023]. Histology showing "pseudopalisading necrosis" around tumor cells.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) - WHO grade IV; MGMT methylation = better prognosis; treat with temozolomide + radiation
MICROBIOLOGY - Image Recalls
IMG-23 [NEET PG 2025]. Gram stain showing gram-positive cocci in clusters.
Q: What test differentiates Staph aureus from Staph epidermidis?
Answer: Coagulase test (S. aureus = coagulase positive); catalase differentiates Staph from Strep
IMG-24 [NEET PG 2024]. Image showing branching, septate hyphae at 45° angle (Grocott-Gomori silver stain).
Q: Organism?
Answer: Aspergillus fumigatus (acute-angle 45° branching, septate hyphae)
IMG-25 [NEET PG 2023]. KOH preparation showing broad, ribbon-like, aseptate hyphae with wide-angle (90°) branching.
Q: Organism?
Answer: Mucor/Rhizopus (Mucormycosis - Zygomycetes); associated with DKA; rhinocerebral form most common
IMG-26 [NEET PG 2022]. India ink preparation showing encapsulated yeast in CSF.
Q: Organism?
Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans - opportunistic in HIV (CD4 <100); treat with amphotericin B + flucytosine
IMG-27 [NEET PG 2024]. Giemsa stain of peripheral blood film showing ring trophozoites + banana-shaped gametocytes.
Q: Plasmodium species?
Answer: Plasmodium falciparum - multiple rings per RBC; Maurer's clefts; banana-shaped gametocytes; most dangerous
MEDICINE / CARDIOLOGY - Image Recalls
IMG-28 [NEET PG 2024-25]. ECG showing narrow complex regular tachycardia at rate ~150 bpm with sawtooth flutter waves best seen in V1/inferior leads.
Q: Diagnosis + management?
Answer: Atrial flutter (2:1 block) - rate ~150; treat with rate control (diltiazem) or cardioversion; ablation for recurrence
IMG-29 [NEET PG 2023]. ECG showing ST elevation in V1-V4 with "tombstone" pattern.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Anterior STEMI (LAD territory) - call STEMI protocol; primary PCI within 90 min
IMG-30 [NEET PG 2024]. Chest X-ray showing "egg-on-its-side" cardiac silhouette + increased pulmonary vascularity.
Q: Congenital heart disease?
Answer: Transposition of Great Arteries (TGA) - narrow mediastinum + egg-on-side; presents as cyanotic newborn; prostaglandin E1 to maintain PDA; balloon atrial septostomy
IMG-31 [NEET PG 2023]. Echocardiogram / chest X-ray showing "boot-shaped" heart.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) - "coeur en sabot" (boot-shaped) on CXR; cyanotic CHD; squatting relieves hypercyanotic spell
IMG-32 [NEET PG 2022]. Fundal photograph showing flame hemorrhages + papilledema + hard exudates in a "star pattern" at macula.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy (Grade IV - Papilledema + star pattern) - Keith-Wagener-Barker grade IV
DERMATOLOGY - Image Recalls
IMG-33 [NEET PG 2025]. Clinical image of patient showing silvery-white plaques on extensor surfaces of elbows.
Q: Diagnosis + sign present?
Answer: Psoriasis vulgaris - Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding when scale removed); Grattage test
IMG-34 [NEET PG 2024]. Clinical image showing tense bullae + erosions in elderly patient; Nikolsky sign NEGATIVE.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Bullous pemphigoid - subepidermal blisters; anti-BP180/BP230 (hemidesmosome); linear IgG at DEJ on DIF
IMG-35 [NEET PG 2023]. Clinical image showing target lesions on palms and dorsal hands.
Q: Diagnosis + most common trigger?
Answer: Erythema multiforme - most common trigger = HSV (herpes simplex); Mycoplasma also common
IMG-36 [NEET PG 2024]. Skin scraping under KOH showing "spaghetti and meatballs" pattern.
Q: Organism + condition?
Answer: Malassezia furfur - Pityriasis versicolor; hypo/hyperpigmented macules; treat with topical selenium sulfide / ketoconazole
IMG-37 [NEET PG 2022-23]. Clinical image showing hypopigmented anesthetic patch + thickened nerve.
Q: Type of leprosy?
Answer: Tuberculoid leprosy (TT/BT) - few bacilli, strong CMI; AFB-negative/few; treat with rifampicin + dapsone (PB: 6 months)
RADIOLOGY - Image Recalls
IMG-38 [NEET PG 2025]. MRI Brain showing enhancing mass in posterior fossa in a 7-year-old.
Q: Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Medulloblastoma (most common posterior fossa tumor in children; arises from vermis; "drop metastases" in spinal canal; treat with surgery + radiation + chemo)
IMG-39 [NEET PG 2024]. CT showing "biconvex (lens-shaped) hyperdense" extra-axial collection, NOT crossing sutures.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Extradural/Epidural hematoma - rupture of middle meningeal artery; "lucid interval"; temporal bone fracture; emergency craniotomy
IMG-40 [NEET PG 2023]. Plain X-ray showing "ground-glass" opacity in lung apices + Ghon complex.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Primary tuberculosis (Ghon focus = subpleural calcification + ipsilateral hilar lymph node = Ghon complex; Ranke complex = calcified Ghon complex)
IMG-41 [NEET PG 2024]. USG showing "double wall sign" or "target sign" in right iliac fossa.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Intussusception (concentric rings = target/doughnut sign on cross-section; pseudo-kidney sign on longitudinal section)
IMG-42 [NEET PG 2022]. Abdominal X-ray showing "coffee-bean sign" in sigmoid colon.
Q: Diagnosis?
Answer: Sigmoid volvulus - treatment = flexible sigmoidoscopy decompression (if not gangrenous); coffee-bean pointing to RIGHT upper quadrant
QUICK REVISION: 2025-2026 NEW UPDATES TO KNOW
1. SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin/dapagliflozin): Now first-line added therapy in HFrEF with/without diabetes (2022 ESC Heart Failure guidelines). NEET PG tests this heavily.
2. COVID-19 related: ARDS management (6 mL/kg TV + prone positioning for PaO2/FiO2 < 150); Multisystem inflammatory syndrome in children (MIS-C) = Kawasaki-like post-COVID.
3. Tuberculosis - ART timing updated: WHO recommends ART within 2-8 weeks of TB treatment initiation (all patients); EXCEPT TB meningitis = start at 8 weeks.
4. Updated NEET PG pattern 2025 (held August 3, 2025): 200 Qs; single session; ~50% image-based; multiple shift of paper analysis confirms above trends.
5. Idarucizumab (Praxbind): Specific reversal agent for dabigatran; andexanet alfa for direct Xa inhibitors (rivaroxaban, apixaban).
6. McDonald criteria 2017 for MS: Can diagnose on single MRI scan if "dissemination in space" criteria met + CSF oligoclonal bands showing "dissemination in time."
7. HPV vaccination schedule: 2-dose (0, 6-12 months) for girls 9-14 years; 3-dose for 15+ years; India launched Cervavac (quadrivalent HPV vaccine, indigenous) in 2023.
8. PBC (Primary Biliary Cholangitis): Treatment with obeticholic acid (new; second-line after UDCA failure) - tested as "new drug" question.
9. Iron deficiency anemia treatment in pregnancy: IV iron preferred in 2nd/3rd trimester if Hb <8 g/dL or unable to tolerate oral iron (FOGSI/WHO 2022 guidelines).
10. Rotterdam criteria for PCOS reaffirmed: AMH can substitute for ultrasound PCO criteria in revised 2023 international evidence-based guideline.
SUBJECT-WISE PRIORITY FOR NEET PG 2026
| Priority | Subject | Focus |
|---|
| ★★★★★ | Medicine | Clinical vignettes, ECGs, emergencies, rheumatology |
| ★★★★★ | OBGYN | Obstetric emergencies, infertility, gynecological malignancies |
| ★★★★★ | Surgery | Trauma, GI surgery, oncology, hernia classification |
| ★★★★ | PSM | Biostatistics, national programs, epidemiology |
| ★★★★ | Pharmacology | Drug of choice, drug interactions, newer drugs |
| ★★★★ | Pathology | IHC, chromosomal translocations, histology images |
| ★★★★ | Microbiology | Clinical context, special stains, serology |
| ★★★ | Biochemistry | Enzyme deficiencies, metabolic pathways |
| ★★★ | Dermatology | Image-heavy, bullous diseases, photosensitivity |
| ★★★ | Radiology | X-ray signs, CT patterns, named signs |
| ★★ | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy, radiological, embryology |
| ★★ | Forensic | Medico-legal, thanatology basics |
| ★★ | Ortho | X-ray diagnosis, named conditions |
| ★★ | Ophthalmology | Retinal conditions, glaucoma, congenital |
| ★★ | ENT | Audiometry, ear conditions, neck masses |
| ★★ | Paediatrics | Growth milestones, congenital conditions |
| ★ | Physiology | Integrated into other subjects |
| ★ | Anaesthesia | Specific drugs, monitoring, complications |
Exam-day strategy: Medicine + OBGYN + Surgery = 35% of total marks. Master these three. Image-based questions can be cracked by recognizing "named signs" (Lyre, Bird-beak, Boot-shaped, Coffee-bean, Target, Sunburst, Codman's triangle, Air bronchogram). Each image question tests ONE classic finding - learn the finding, not just the disease. Good luck for NEET PG 2026!