You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 42 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for induction of labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her two other children were born after uncomplicated vaginal deliveries at 41 and 42 weeks' gestation, respectively. Her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 86 kg (200 lb); BMI is 33 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.4°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg. Examination shows a nontender, soft uterus consistent in size with a 42-weeks' gestation. This patient's child is at greatest risk for which of the following complications? Options: A) Polyhydramnios B) Acute respiratory distress syndrome C) Meconium aspiration D) Placental abruption Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.