🫁 RESPIRATORY SYSTEM — EXAM QUESTION SET
KMTC Medicine | Key Topics | Questions with Model Answers
SECTION A: PNEUMONIA
Q1. Define pneumonia and classify it.
Answer:
Pneumonia is an acute infection/inflammation of the lung parenchyma (alveoli and surrounding tissue).
Classification:
| Type | Definition |
|---|
| Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) | Acquired outside hospital or within 48 hrs of admission |
| Hospital-Acquired (Nosocomial) Pneumonia | Develops ≥48 hrs after hospital admission |
| Aspiration Pneumonia | Inhalation of oropharyngeal/gastric contents |
| Opportunistic Pneumonia | In immunocompromised (e.g., PCP in HIV) |
Q2. List the common causative organisms of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP).
Answer:
| Setting | Common Organisms |
|---|
| Most common overall | Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) |
| Atypical organisms | Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila |
| Viral | Influenza, RSV, SARS-CoV-2 |
| Young adults | Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
| Aspiration | Anaerobes, Gram-negative bacilli |
| HIV/immunocompromised | Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP), Klebsiella, Pseudomonas |
The causative agent is identified in only about half of CAP cases.
Q3. Describe the clinical features of pneumonia.
Answer:
- Symptoms: Fever (often high-grade), chills/rigors, productive cough (rusty/purulent sputum), pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea
- Signs:
- Tachypnoea, tachycardia
- Reduced chest expansion on affected side
- Dull percussion note (consolidation)
- Bronchial breath sounds
- Increased vocal fremitus/vocal resonance
- Crepitations (crackles)
- Atypical features (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia): Gradual onset, dry cough, minimal signs, extrapulmonary features (rash, haemolytic anaemia, diarrhoea)
Q4. What investigations are done in pneumonia?
Answer:
| Investigation | Finding/Purpose |
|---|
| Chest X-ray | Lobar/segmental consolidation; air bronchograms |
| Sputum M/C/S | Identify organism; guide antibiotics |
| FBC | Raised WBC (neutrophilia in bacterial; lymphocytosis in viral) |
| Blood cultures | Bacteraemia; positive in ~10% of CAP |
| ABG | Assess severity; type 1 respiratory failure (↓PaO₂) |
| Urea, Creatinine | CURB-65 scoring; assess organ function |
| Procalcitonin | Marker of bacterial infection; guides antibiotic decision |
| NAAT/PCR | Atypical organisms, viral causes |
Q5. State the CURB-65 severity score for pneumonia and its management implications.
Answer:
Each criterion = 1 point:
- C — Confusion (new)
- U — Urea >7 mmol/L
- R — Respiratory rate ≥30/min
- B — BP (systolic <90 mmHg or diastolic ≤60 mmHg)
- 65 — Age ≥65 years
| Score | Mortality | Management |
|---|
| 0–1 | Low (<3%) | Treat as outpatient; oral antibiotics |
| 2 | Moderate (~9%) | Consider short inpatient stay or close outpatient follow-up |
| 3–5 | High (15–40%) | Inpatient; consider ICU if score 4–5 |
Q6. What is the treatment of CAP?
Answer:
- Mild (outpatient): Amoxicillin 500 mg TDS × 5–7 days OR Azithromycin 500 mg OD × 5 days (atypical cover)
- Moderate (inpatient): IV Amoxicillin-clavulanate + Azithromycin OR Ceftriaxone 1–2g IV OD + Azithromycin
- Severe (ICU): Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin OR Piperacillin-tazobactam + Azithromycin
- Atypical pneumonia: Azithromycin, Doxycycline, or Fluoroquinolone (Levofloxacin)
- PCP (HIV patient): Co-trimoxazole (TMP-SMX) high dose + Prednisolone if PaO₂ <70 mmHg
- Supportive: O₂ supplementation, IV fluids, analgesics (pleuritic pain)
SECTION B: TUBERCULOSIS (TB)
Q7. Define tuberculosis and state its causative organism.
Answer:
Tuberculosis (TB) is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (an aerobic, acid-fast bacillus — AFB).
- Transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei (inhalation of particles from coughing/sneezing)
- Primarily affects the lungs (pulmonary TB) but can affect any organ (extrapulmonary TB)
Q8. Distinguish between primary and post-primary (reactivation) TB.
Answer:
| Feature | Primary TB | Post-Primary (Reactivation) TB |
|---|
| Timing | First infection | Reactivation of latent infection |
| Location | Middle/lower lobes | Upper lobes (apex) |
| Radiographic feature | Ghon focus → Ghon complex | Cavitary lesions, fibrosis, upper lobe infiltrates |
| Clinical | Often asymptomatic; self-limited | Symptomatic — cough, haemoptysis, weight loss |
| Progression | Usually heals; may disseminate in immunocompromised | Progressive; spreads via bronchi |
Q9. What are the clinical features of active pulmonary TB?
Answer:
Systemic (constitutional):
- Persistent cough (productive or non-productive) — most common symptom
- Fever and night sweats
- Weight loss and fatigue
- Loss of appetite (anorexia)
Pulmonary:
- Haemoptysis (in advanced disease)
- Pleuritic chest pain
- Dyspnoea
Physical signs:
- Post-tussive rales (crackles) in upper lung zones
- Amphoric breath sounds (cavitary lesion)
- Lymphadenopathy (more in primary TB)
Note: Up to 25% of culture-confirmed pulmonary TB patients do not report cough.
Q10. How is TB diagnosed?
Answer:
| Test | Notes |
|---|
| Sputum smear microscopy (AFB) | Ziehl-Neelsen stain; cheap and rapid; low sensitivity ~60% |
| Sputum culture (Löwenstein-Jensen medium) | Gold standard; takes 4–8 weeks |
| GeneXpert MTB/RIF (NAAT) | Rapid (2 hrs); detects TB AND rifampicin resistance simultaneously; preferred first-line test |
| Tuberculin Skin Test (TST/Mantoux) | Induration ≥10 mm (positive in general population); ≥5 mm in HIV/immunocompromised |
| IGRA (Interferon Gamma Release Assay) | QuantiFERON-TB Gold; better specificity than TST; not affected by BCG |
| Chest X-ray | Upper lobe infiltrates, cavities, fibrosis; not diagnostic alone |
| Sputum induction/bronchoscopy | If unable to produce sputum |
Q11. State the standard anti-TB treatment regimen.
Answer:
Directly Observed Therapy Short-course (DOTS):
New (drug-sensitive) TB:
| Phase | Duration | Drugs | Abbreviation |
|---|
| Intensive | 2 months | Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol | 2HRZE |
| Continuation | 4 months | Isoniazid + Rifampicin | 4HR |
Total duration: 6 months
Mnemonic for TB drugs: RIPE
- R — Rifampicin
- I — Isoniazid (INH)
- P — Pyrazinamide
- E — Ethambutol
Key side effects:
| Drug | Side Effect |
|---|
| Rifampicin | Orange-red urine; hepatotoxicity; drug interactions (CYP450 inducer) |
| Isoniazid | Peripheral neuropathy (give Pyridoxine/B6); hepatotoxicity |
| Pyrazinamide | Hepatotoxicity; hyperuricaemia (gout) |
| Ethambutol | Optic neuritis (visual acuity monitoring) |
Q12. What is MDR-TB and XDR-TB?
Answer:
- MDR-TB (Multi-Drug Resistant TB): Resistant to at least Isoniazid AND Rifampicin
- XDR-TB (Extensively Drug Resistant TB): MDR-TB + resistance to any fluoroquinolone AND at least one injectable second-line drug
- Treatment: Second-line drugs for 18–24 months (Bedaquiline, Linezolid, Clofazimine, etc.)
- Risk factors: Prior inadequate treatment, non-adherence, contact with MDR-TB case, HIV co-infection
SECTION C: ASTHMA
Q13. Define asthma and describe its pathophysiology.
Answer:
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by:
- Airway hyperresponsiveness
- Reversible bronchoconstriction
- Airway inflammation and remodelling
Pathophysiology:
-
Early phase (immediate) — within minutes of exposure:
- Allergen binds IgE on mast cells → degranulation → histamine, leukotrienes, prostaglandins released → bronchoconstriction, mucosal oedema, mucus secretion
-
Late phase — 4–12 hours later:
- Recruitment of eosinophils, T-lymphocytes → sustained inflammation
- Th2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-5, IL-13) are key mediators
- Eosinophil products (major basic protein) → airway damage
-
Airway remodelling (chronic):
- Subbasement membrane thickening
- Hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle and glands
- Can add an irreversible component over time
Q14. List the triggers of asthma.
Answer:
- Allergens: Dust mites, pollen, animal dander, moulds
- Respiratory infections (viral — commonest trigger, especially in children)
- Exercise (Exercise-induced asthma)
- Cold air
- Air pollutants: Cigarette smoke, fumes
- Drugs: NSAIDs/Aspirin (Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease), Beta-blockers
- GERD (gastro-oesophageal reflux)
- Emotional stress
- Occupational exposures (isocyanates, flour, latex)
Q15. Describe the clinical features and diagnosis of asthma.
Answer:
Classic triad: Wheezing, Breathlessness, Chest tightness ± Cough (often worse at night/early morning)
Diagnosis:
- History: Episodic symptoms, atopy (eczema, allergic rhinitis, family history)
- Spirometry: Obstructive pattern — ↓FEV₁, ↓FEV₁/FVC (<0.7)
- Reversibility: ≥12% AND ≥200 mL improvement in FEV₁ after bronchodilator (salbutamol) → confirms asthma
- Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF): Diurnal variation >20% over ≥3 days
- Bronchial provocation test: Methacholine/histamine challenge (if spirometry normal)
- Skin prick test / serum IgE: Identifies allergic triggers
- CXR: Usually normal; hyperinflation in severe attack
Q16. Classify acute severe asthma and describe management of acute attack.
Answer:
Severity Classification:
| Feature | Moderate | Acute Severe | Life-Threatening |
|---|
| PEFR | 50–75% predicted | 33–50% | <33% (silent chest) |
| SpO₂ | >92% | <92% | <92% |
| Speech | Sentences | Phrases | Cannot speak |
| Pulse | <110 | ≥110 | Bradycardia |
| Resp Rate | <25 | ≥25 | Exhaustion |
| Other | — | — | Confusion, cyanosis, silent chest |
Management of Acute Severe Asthma (ABCDE + SATO₂):
- Sit upright; O₂ — high-flow via face mask (target SpO₂ 94–98%)
- Salbutamol (SABA) — nebulised 2.5–5 mg every 20 min for 1 hour (back-to-back)
- Ipratropium bromide — nebulised 0.5 mg (add to salbutamol in severe)
- Systemic corticosteroids — Prednisolone 40–50 mg oral or Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV
- IV Magnesium sulphate — 1.2–2 g IV over 20 min (life-threatening)
- Monitor: ABG, SpO₂, PEFR, clinical response
- ITU/intubation: Exhaustion, worsening PaCO₂ (rising CO₂ = ominous sign — patient tiring)
Q17. Outline the stepwise management of chronic asthma.
Answer:
Based on GINA (Global Initiative for Asthma) guidelines:
| Step | Treatment |
|---|
| Step 1 | Low-dose ICS-formoterol as-needed (preferred) OR SABA alone as reliever |
| Step 2 | Low-dose ICS daily + SABA reliever |
| Step 3 | Low-dose ICS + LABA (e.g., Salmeterol) OR medium-dose ICS |
| Step 4 | Medium-high dose ICS + LABA |
| Step 5 | Refer specialist; add Tiotropium, anti-IgE (Omalizumab), biologics |
- ICS = Inhaled Corticosteroid (Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone)
- SABA = Short-Acting Beta₂ Agonist (Salbutamol) — reliever
- LABA = Long-Acting Beta₂ Agonist (Salmeterol, Formoterol) — not used alone without ICS
SECTION D: COPD
Q18. Define COPD, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis.
Answer:
-
COPD: A preventable, treatable disease characterised by persistent, irreversible (or poorly reversible) airflow limitation (FEV₁/FVC <0.7 post-bronchodilator), usually due to significant exposure to noxious particles/gases.
-
Emphysema: Permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles due to destruction of alveolar walls (loss of elastic tissue by neutrophil proteases). Result: ↓gas exchange surface, air trapping.
-
Chronic Bronchitis: Defined clinically as productive cough for ≥3 consecutive months in ≥2 consecutive years without other cause.
- Mechanism: Hyperplasia of mucus-secreting glands, goblet cell metaplasia, chronic bronchiolitis → airway obstruction
Q19. Compare the "Pink Puffer" and "Blue Bloater" of COPD.
Answer:
| Feature | Pink Puffer (Emphysema type) | Blue Bloater (Chronic Bronchitis type) |
|---|
| Build | Thin, cachectic | Obese/stocky |
| Colour | Pink (adequate oxygenation at rest) | Cyanotic (Blue) |
| Cough | Minimal | Productive cough (White/purulent) |
| Dyspnoea | Severe | Mild to moderate |
| Chest | Barrel-shaped, hyperinflated | Less prominent |
| PaO₂ | Near normal at rest | Reduced (hypoxic) |
| PaCO₂ | Normal or low | Elevated (hypercapnic) |
| Cor pulmonale | Late | Early and common |
| Polycythaemia | Absent | Present (response to hypoxia) |
Q20. What are the risk factors and GOLD staging of COPD?
Answer:
Risk Factors:
- Cigarette smoking (major; dose-dependent — pack-years)
- Biomass fuel combustion (cooking fires in enclosed spaces — common in Kenya/Africa)
- Occupational dust (mines, grain, cotton)
- Childhood respiratory infections → impaired lung growth
- α1-antitrypsin deficiency (genetic; causes panacinar emphysema — lower lobes; onset in young non-smokers)
- Air pollution
GOLD Staging (based on post-bronchodilator FEV₁, % predicted):
| GOLD Grade | FEV₁ | Severity |
|---|
| 1 | ≥80% | Mild |
| 2 | 50–79% | Moderate |
| 3 | 30–49% | Severe |
| 4 | <30% | Very Severe |
Q21. Outline the management of stable COPD.
Answer:
Non-pharmacological:
- Smoking cessation — most important intervention (slows FEV₁ decline)
- Pulmonary rehabilitation
- Nutritional support
- Avoid biomass/occupational exposures
- Vaccinations: Influenza (annual), Pneumococcal
Pharmacological (stepwise):
| Severity | Treatment |
|---|
| All patients | SABA (Salbutamol) PRN — reliever |
| Persistent symptoms | Add LAMA (Tiotropium) or LABA (Salmeterol/Formoterol) |
| Frequent exacerbations | Add ICS (e.g., ICS/LABA combination) |
| Severe/Very severe | Roflumilast (PDE4 inhibitor); consider long-term O₂ |
Long-term O₂ Therapy (LTOT):
- Indicated if: PaO₂ ≤7.3 kPa (≤55 mmHg) at rest; OR PaO₂ 7.3–8 kPa with polycythaemia/cor pulmonale
- ≥15 hours/day; improves survival in severe COPD with respiratory failure
SECTION E: PLEURAL EFFUSION
Q22. Define pleural effusion and classify it.
Answer:
A pleural effusion is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space (normally <20 mL).
Classification:
| Type | Protein | LDH | Cause |
|---|
| Transudate | Low (<25 g/L) | Low | Altered hydrostatic/osmotic forces |
| Exudate | High (>35 g/L) | High | Increased capillary permeability |
Light's Criteria — Fluid is an EXUDATE if ANY ONE is met:
- Pleural fluid protein / serum protein >0.5
- Pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH >0.6
- Pleural fluid LDH >⅔ of upper limit of normal serum LDH
(Sensitivity and specificity >98% when all three criteria are considered)
Q23. List the causes of transudates and exudates.
Answer:
Transudates (FAIL):
- Failure — Congestive Heart Failure (most common; often bilateral, R > L)
- Albuminaemia low — Nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis (hypoalbuminaemia)
- Infarction — Pulmonary embolism (can be either, usually exudate)
- Liver — Cirrhosis, ascites (hepatic hydrothorax)
Exudates (MAPLE T):
- Malignancy (lung, mesothelioma, metastases) — most common in adults >40 yrs
- Abscess/Pneumonia (parapneumonic effusion, empyema)
- Pulmonary TB
- Lupus (SLE), Rheumatoid arthritis
- Empyema (pus in pleural space; pH <7.2)
- Trauma, Pancreatitis
Q24. How is pleural effusion investigated and managed?
Answer:
Investigations:
- CXR: Blunting of costophrenic angle (>200 mL); meniscus sign; mediastinal shift (large)
- USS chest: Confirms fluid; guides thoracentesis
- CT chest: Characterises effusion; identifies underlying lesion
- Thoracentesis (pleurocentesis): Aspiration of 30–50 mL for diagnosis
- Send for: Protein, LDH, glucose, pH, cytology, AFB, M/C/S
- Remove up to 1–1.5 L for symptom relief (>1.5 L risks re-expansion pulmonary oedema)
Pleural Fluid Interpretation:
| pH <7.2 | Empyema, malignancy, oesophageal rupture, TB, rheumatoid |
|---|
| Glucose <60 mg/dL | Empyema, rheumatoid arthritis, malignancy, TB |
| Bloody | Malignancy, trauma, PE |
| Lymphocytosis | TB, malignancy, lymphoma |
| Neutrophilia | Bacterial infection, early parapneumonic |
Management:
- Treat underlying cause
- Therapeutic thoracentesis (symptomatic relief)
- Chest drain (ICD) — for empyema, haemothorax, large symptomatic effusion
- Pleurodesis — recurrent malignant effusion (talc)
SECTION F: PNEUMOTHORAX
Q25. Define pneumothorax and classify it.
Answer:
Pneumothorax = Air in the pleural space.
| Type | Description |
|---|
| Spontaneous Primary | No underlying lung disease; tall thin young men; ruptured subpleural blebs |
| Spontaneous Secondary | Underlying lung disease (COPD, asthma, TB, CF, PCP) |
| Traumatic | Chest trauma, iatrogenic (post-CVC insertion, thoracentesis, mechanical ventilation) |
| Tension Pneumothorax | Air enters but cannot escape → progressive ↑ pressure → mediastinal shift → cardiovascular collapse |
Q26. Describe the clinical features and management of tension pneumothorax.
Answer:
Tension Pneumothorax — EMERGENCY:
Clinical Features:
- Severe respiratory distress, tachycardia, hypotension
- Absent breath sounds on affected side
- Tracheal deviation away from affected side
- Distended neck veins (JVP elevated)
- Tracheal deviation + absent breath sounds + haemodynamic instability = DO NOT wait for CXR
Immediate Management:
- Needle decompression — 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, large-bore (14G) needle — converts tension to open pneumothorax
- Chest drain (ICD) — 4th/5th ICS, anterior axillary line → definitive treatment
- High-flow O₂ (100%)
- IV access, fluids if haemodynamically unstable
SECTION G: LUNG CANCER
Q27. Classify lung cancer and state the most common types.
Answer:
Two major groups:
- NSCLC (Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer) — 85% of all lung cancers
- Adenocarcinoma — most common overall; commonest in women, never-smokers, <45 yrs; peripheral location; EGFR mutations
- Squamous cell carcinoma — central; associated with smoking; causes hypercalcaemia (PTHrP); cavitates
- Large cell carcinoma — undifferentiated; peripheral; poor prognosis
- SCLC (Small Cell Lung Cancer) — 15%; central; strongly associated with smoking; neuroendocrine origin; early metastasis; responds to chemotherapy; paraneoplastic syndromes
Q28. List the clinical features and paraneoplastic syndromes of lung cancer.
Answer:
Local/Pulmonary symptoms:
- Persistent cough, haemoptysis, dyspnoea, wheeze, recurrent chest infections
- Pleuritic pain, pleural effusion
Regional invasion (local spread):
- Superior Vena Cava (SVC) obstruction — facial/arm oedema, dilated neck veins, headache
- Pancoast tumour (apex) — shoulder/arm pain, Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy — hoarseness of voice
- Phrenic nerve palsy — raised hemidiaphragm on CXR
- Pericardial involvement — pericardial effusion, arrhythmias
Paraneoplastic Syndromes (extra-pulmonary):
| Syndrome | Cancer Type | Feature |
|---|
| SIADH (hyponatraemia) | SCLC | ↓Na⁺ |
| Ectopic ACTH (Cushing's) | SCLC | ↑cortisol, hypokalaemia |
| Hypercalcaemia (PTHrP) | Squamous cell | ↑Ca²⁺, confusion, polyuria |
| Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome | SCLC | Proximal muscle weakness |
| Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoarthropathy | Adenocarcinoma, squamous | Clubbing + painful periosteal new bone formation |
SECTION H: RESPIRATORY FAILURE
Q29. Define and classify respiratory failure.
Answer:
Respiratory failure = failure of the respiratory system to maintain adequate gas exchange; defined as:
- PaO₂ <60 mmHg (8 kPa) on room air ± PaCO₂ >45 mmHg (6 kPa)
| Type | PaO₂ | PaCO₂ | Causes |
|---|
| Type 1 (Hypoxaemic) | ↓ | Normal or ↓ | Pneumonia, PE, pulmonary oedema, ARDS, fibrosis — conditions affecting oxygenation but NOT ventilation |
| Type 2 (Hypercapnic/Ventilatory) | ↓ | ↑ | COPD, severe asthma, neuromuscular disease (GBS, MND), chest wall deformity, obesity hypoventilation — conditions affecting VENTILATION |
Q30. How is respiratory failure managed?
Answer:
Type 1 Respiratory Failure:
- High-flow O₂ (10–15 L/min via non-rebreather mask)
- Treat underlying cause (e.g., antibiotics for pneumonia, diuretics for pulmonary oedema)
- Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) if severe
- Intubation and mechanical ventilation if deteriorating
Type 2 Respiratory Failure (e.g., COPD exacerbation):
- Controlled O₂ — target SpO₂ 88–92% (avoid hypercapnic drive suppression)
- Start at 28% Venturi mask; titrate up
- NIV (BiPAP) — first choice for COPD-related Type 2 failure:
- IPAP (inspiratory pressure) + EPAP (expiratory pressure)
- Reduces need for intubation, lowers mortality
- Treat cause: Bronchodilators, steroids, antibiotics
- Invasive ventilation (ETT + mechanical ventilator) — if NIV fails or contraindicated
⚠️ Critical: Giving high-flow O₂ to a Type 2 COPD patient can suppress hypoxic drive → worsen hypercapnia → CO₂ narcosis → coma
SECTION I: SHORT NOTES / HIGH-YIELD ONE-LINERS
Q31. Short note on Bronchiectasis.
Answer:
- Definition: Permanent, abnormal dilatation of bronchi due to destruction of bronchial wall
- Causes: Recurrent infections (TB — commonest in Kenya), cystic fibrosis, post-measles, hypogammaglobulinaemia, Kartagener syndrome (immotile cilia)
- Features: Chronic productive cough with copious purulent sputum (>100 mL/day), haemoptysis, recurrent chest infections; finger clubbing
- Diagnosis: HRCT chest (gold standard) — "signet ring sign" (bronchus wider than adjacent artery), tram-track shadows
- Treatment: Chest physiotherapy (postural drainage), antibiotics for exacerbations, bronchodilators; surgery for localised disease
Q32. Short note on Pulmonary Embolism (PE).
Answer:
- Definition: Occlusion of pulmonary artery/branches by thrombus (usually from DVT in leg veins)
- Risk factors: Virchow's triad — stasis (immobility, heart failure), hypercoagulability (OCP, cancer, thrombophilia), endothelial injury (surgery, trauma)
- Features: Sudden dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis; tachycardia, tachypnoea; hypoxia
- Massive PE: Haemodynamic collapse, RV failure, raised JVP, S₁Q₃T₃ on ECG
- Diagnosis: D-dimer (screening), CTPA (gold standard), V/Q scan
- Treatment: Anticoagulation (LMWH → Warfarin/DOAC); Thrombolysis for massive PE; IVC filter if anticoagulation contraindicated
Q33. What is ARDS?
Answer:
- ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) — life-threatening form of Type 1 respiratory failure
- Berlin Definition:
- Onset within 1 week of known insult
- Bilateral opacities on CXR/CT (not fully explained by effusion or collapse)
- PaO₂/FiO₂ <300 mmHg (mild), <200 (moderate), <100 (severe)
- Not primarily due to cardiac failure/fluid overload
- Causes: Pneumonia, sepsis, trauma, aspiration, pancreatitis, major surgery
- Pathophysiology: Diffuse alveolar damage → capillary leak → non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema → refractory hypoxia
- Treatment: Treat underlying cause; lung-protective ventilation (low tidal volumes 6 mL/kg, PEEP, prone positioning); fluid restriction; dexamethasone
QUICK EXAM REVISION TABLE
| Topic | Key Fact to Remember |
|---|
| Most common CAP pathogen | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| Atypical pneumonia organisms | Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella |
| TB first-line regimen | 2HRZE → 4HR (DOTS) |
| Asthma spirometry | Obstructive + reversible (≥12% FEV₁ after salbutamol) |
| COPD definition | FEV₁/FVC <0.7 post-bronchodilator + irreversible |
| Chronic bronchitis definition | Productive cough ≥3 months/year for ≥2 years |
| Emphysema type (smoking) | Centriacinar |
| Emphysema type (α1-AT deficiency) | Panacinar |
| Light's criteria | Exudate if protein ratio >0.5, LDH ratio >0.6, or LDH >2/3 ULN |
| Most common cause of pleural effusion | Congestive heart failure (transudate) |
| Tension pneumothorax: trachea deviates | AWAY from affected side |
| Most common lung cancer | Adenocarcinoma (overall); Squamous (central; smoking) |
| SCLC paraneoplastic | SIADH, ectopic ACTH, Lambert-Eaton |
| Type 1 vs Type 2 resp. failure | Type 1: ↓PaO₂ only; Type 2: ↓PaO₂ + ↑PaCO₂ |
| O₂ target in COPD exacerbation | 88–92% (avoid suppressing hypoxic drive) |
| NIV used in | Type 2 RF (COPD); COPD exacerbation = BiPAP |
| Bronchiectasis diagnosis | HRCT chest — signet ring sign |
Sources: Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Robbins & Kumar Basic Pathology; Murray & Nadel's Textbook of Respiratory Medicine; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 22e; Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine; Fishman's Pulmonary Diseases and Disorders