A previously healthy 17-year-old girl comes to the physician with her mother because of an 8-month history of increasing facial hair growth. The patient also has had a 5.4-kg (12-lb) weight gain during this time. Menarche was at the age of 10 years. Menses began to occur at regular 28-day intervals after the first 6 months. During the past year, menses have occurred at irregular 45-day intervals. The patient's mother is concerned that her daughter may be depressed because she has become increasingly moody. The patient takes no medications. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 64 kg (142 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Examination shows striae over the abdomen. There is no clitoromegaly. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

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I have enough comprehensive information to give a thorough, well-cited answer. Let me now analyze this clinical case carefully and provide a complete response.

Analysis of the Clinical Case

The clinical picture:
FeatureSignificance
17-year-old girlAdolescent - PCOS is the most common cause of hyperandrogenism at this age
8 months of increasing facial hair (hirsutism)Androgen excess
5.4 kg weight gainMetabolic component
Irregular menses (45-day intervals)Oligo-ovulation/anovulation
Striae over the abdomenKey finding - seen in PCOS but also in Cushing syndrome
Mood changesReported in ~50% of PCOS patients (depression/anxiety)
No clitoromegalyArgues against virilizing tumor
No medicationsExcludes iatrogenic cause
BMI 24 kg/m²Normal weight (lean PCOS possible)

The Critical Diagnostic Twist: Striae

This case has a deliberate red flag. Most students focus on PCOS and jump straight to LH/FSH ratio or pelvic ultrasound. But the abdominal striae combined with weight gain, hirsutism, and mood changes must prompt exclusion of Cushing syndrome first, because:
  • Cushing syndrome can mimic PCOS almost perfectly: hirsutism, menstrual irregularity, weight gain, mood changes
  • Striae (especially purple/violaceous, wide striae) are a hallmark of Cushing syndrome
  • PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion - other causes of hyperandrogenism must be ruled out before confirming it
As Goldman-Cecil Medicine states explicitly: "Excess androgen from any source or increased extraglandular conversion of androgens to estrogens can lead to the typical findings of polycystic ovary syndrome. Included are such diverse disorders as Cushing syndrome, mild congenital adrenal hyperplasia, virilizing tumors of adrenal or ovarian origin, hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism, and obesity. After exclusion of these causes, two of the following three are required for a diagnosis of PCOS..." - Goldman-Cecil Medicine.

Most Appropriate Next Step: 24-hour Urine Free Cortisol (or Low-dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test)

This is the correct answer for this type of USMLE-style question. The reasoning:
Why NOT just go straight to serum testosterone or LH/FSH?
  • Those tests move toward confirming PCOS, but PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion
  • Cushing syndrome must be ruled out first when striae are present
  • The Textbook of Family Medicine states: "Proceed with a workup for PCOS, late-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia, or Cushing syndrome if there are features consistent with these illnesses."
Why the 24-hour urine cortisol or dexamethasone suppression test?
The triad of:
  1. Striae (abdominal)
  2. Weight gain
  3. Hirsutism + menstrual irregularity + mood change
...is sufficient to warrant excluding Cushing syndrome before making a PCOS diagnosis.
Screening tests for Cushing syndrome (any one is acceptable):
  • 24-hour urine free cortisol - most commonly cited initial test
  • Low-dose overnight dexamethasone suppression test (1 mg dexamethasone at 11 PM, serum cortisol at 8 AM; normal suppression to <1.8 mcg/dL rules out Cushing)
  • Late-night salivary cortisol - equally sensitive

Supporting Framework: Why This Isn't "Just PCOS"

Differentiating PCOS from Cushing in this scenario:
FeaturePCOSCushing Syndrome
HirsutismYesYes
Menstrual irregularityYesYes
Weight gainCommonYes
Mood changesYes (anxiety/depression)Yes (psychiatric symptoms)
Abdominal striaePossible (from rapid weight gain)Classic finding
ClitoromegalyAbsent (as here)Absent typically
Buffalo hump / moon faceNoYes
In this patient, the absence of classic Cushingoid features (buffalo hump, moon face, proximal muscle weakness, easy bruising) makes Cushing less likely - but clinical suspicion is still raised enough by the striae to warrant biochemical exclusion.
Harrison's 2025 notes that "PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other etiologies for irregular menses and hyperandrogenism should be excluded (hypothyroidism, hyperprolactinemia, adrenal sources for hyperandrogenism)." - Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 22e (2025).

Summary: Most Appropriate Next Step

Measure serum testosterone AND/OR perform a 24-hour urine free cortisol (dexamethasone suppression test) to exclude Cushing syndrome before confirming PCOS.
If this is a single-best-answer question with the following typical options:
  • A) Serum LH/FSH ratio
  • B) Pelvic ultrasound
  • C) Serum testosterone levels (to document hyperandrogenism)
  • D) 24-hour urine free cortisol
  • E) Dexamethasone suppression test
The answer depends on what options are listed. In the context where Cushing is being tested:
  • Best answer = 24-hour urine free cortisol or overnight dexamethasone suppression test (to exclude Cushing)
  • If no Cushing option is present: Serum testosterone (to document biochemical hyperandrogenism as the first lab step in suspected PCOS)
The striae are the deliberate teaching point here - they signal "don't assume PCOS without ruling out Cushing." This is a classic USMLE Step 2 CK teaching case where the examiners reward students who recognize that striae + weight gain + hirsutism = screen for Cushing first.
Key references: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 22e (2025); Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Textbook of Family Medicine 9e

A previously healthy 17-year-old girl comes to the physician with her mother because of an 8-month history of increasing facial hair growth. The patient also has had a 5.4-kg (12-lb) weight gain during this time. Menarche was at the age of 10 years. Menses began to occur at regular 28-day intervals after the first 6 months. During the past year, menses have occurred at irregular 45-day intervals. The patient's mother is concerned that her daughter may be depressed because she has become increasingly moody. The patient takes no medications. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 64 kg (142 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Examination shows striae over the abdomen. There is no clitoromegaly. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis? 0 A) Measurement of morning serum fasting cortisol concentration 0 B) Measurement of serum prolactin concentration 0 C) Measurement of serum testosterone concentration 0 D) CT scan of the abdomen 0 E) MRI of the brain

The answer is C) Measurement of serum testosterone concentration.
Here's the full reasoning:

Why Serum Testosterone is the Best First Step

With the answer choices now revealed, the correct answer is C, not a cortisol test. Here is why each option ranks as it does:

Breaking Down the Case

This 17-year-old presents with the classic triad pointing to androgen excess:
FindingSignificance
Facial hirsutism (8 months)Androgen-dependent hair growth
Irregular menses (45-day cycles)Oligo-ovulation / anovulation
Weight gain, mood changesMetabolic / hormonal dysregulation
Abdominal striaeRapid weight gain OR hypercortisolism
No clitoromegalyAgainst virilizing tumor
Normal BMI (24)Lean phenotype
No medicationsNo iatrogenic cause
The first biochemical step in evaluating any woman with hirsutism + menstrual irregularity is to document and quantify androgen excess - and serum testosterone is the primary androgen to measure.

Why C is Correct: Serum Testosterone

  • Testosterone is the initial screening test for hyperandrogenism, the core pathophysiologic abnormality driving this presentation.
  • It establishes biochemical hyperandrogenism as the basis for further workup.
  • The level of testosterone elevation guides the differential:
    • Mildly elevated (e.g., 60-150 ng/dL): consistent with PCOS or functional ovarian hyperandrogenism
    • Markedly elevated (>200 ng/dL): raises strong suspicion for an androgen-secreting tumor (ovarian or adrenal) - prompting CT/MRI next
  • PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and testosterone level is needed before any imaging or further workup is justified.
As the Textbook of Family Medicine 9e states: "If evaluation to this point is unremarkable, proceed with testing of total and bioavailable testosterone levels, serum DHEA levels."
Harrison's 2025 confirms that biochemical hyperandrogenism (elevated total or free testosterone) is one of the three Rotterdam diagnostic criteria for PCOS.

Why NOT the Other Options

A) Morning serum fasting cortisol
  • This is a tempting distractor because of the abdominal striae - a classic Cushing finding.
  • However, a random or fasting morning cortisol is not a validated screening test for Cushing syndrome. It has poor sensitivity and specificity because cortisol is pulsatile and diurnal.
  • The proper screen for Cushing is either a 24-hour urine free cortisol, late-night salivary cortisol, or overnight 1-mg dexamethasone suppression test - none of which are listed here.
  • More importantly, this patient lacks the classic Cushing features: no buffalo hump, no moon face, no proximal muscle weakness, no easy bruising, no hypertension. The striae alone in a teenager gaining weight are more consistent with PCOS than Cushing.
  • Cortisol measurement would not be the first step even if Cushing were suspected.
B) Serum prolactin
  • Hyperprolactinemia can cause menstrual irregularity, but it does not cause hirsutism or androgen excess.
  • This patient's primary complaint is facial hair growth - prolactin elevation does not explain this.
  • Prolactin would be appropriate if she had galactorrhea, headaches, or visual field defects (suggesting prolactinoma) - none of which are present.
D) CT scan of the abdomen
  • Imaging is premature at this stage.
  • CT is reserved for after testosterone levels are measured; specifically, if testosterone is markedly elevated (>200 ng/dL), CT/MRI would then be used to localize an adrenal or ovarian androgen-secreting tumor.
  • Jumping to CT without biochemical confirmation is inappropriate and exposes the patient to unnecessary radiation.
E) MRI of the brain
  • Would be appropriate if a pituitary adenoma (e.g., prolactinoma, Cushing disease from an ACTH-secreting tumor) were suspected.
  • This patient has no headaches, no visual changes, no galactorrhea, and no symptoms pointing to the pituitary.
  • Again, premature without biochemical workup first.

Diagnostic Algorithm for This Patient

Hirsutism + Irregular menses + Weight gain
              ↓
  STEP 1: Serum testosterone (+ DHEAS)   ← THIS IS THE ANSWER
              ↓
   Mildly elevated         Markedly elevated (>200 ng/dL)
        ↓                          ↓
  Consider PCOS           CT abdomen/pelvis
  (+ TSH, prolactin,      (rule out androgen-
   17-OHP to exclude       secreting tumor)
   other causes)
        ↓
  2 of 3 Rotterdam criteria → PCOS diagnosis
  (Hyperandrogenism + Oligo-ovulation + PCO on US)

Key Teaching Points

  1. Serum testosterone is the first biochemical test in any workup for hirsutism - it both confirms androgen excess and stratifies the differential diagnosis.
  2. The striae are a distractor designed to make you think of Cushing syndrome - but a morning cortisol is not the right Cushing screen, and classic Cushingoid features are absent here.
  3. PCOS is the most likely diagnosis, but you arrive there through testosterone measurement, not by assuming it upfront.
  4. No imaging before labs - CT and MRI are second-line steps triggered by abnormal biochemical results.
Sources: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 22e (2025); Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Textbook of Family Medicine, 9e
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