CHILD HEALTH - MCQ Answer Key with Explanations

Q1. Burns percentage on head, neck and face in a child of one year

Actually, using the Lund & Browder chart for a 1-year-old child: Head = 9.5% x 2 = 19% (full head). However for the "rule of nines" modified for children, at age 1 the head accounts for 18%, minus adjustments. The most commonly cited exam answer for head+face+neck in a 1-year-old is B) 16% - at age 1 year, head = 17%, which rounds to the closest option of 16% in Lund & Browder charts.

Q2. Congenital heart disease causing death in the first week of life

• VSD rarely causes death in week 1
• TOF is duct-dependent but rarely fatal in week 1
• Ebstein's anomaly - severe forms can be fatal but less classically "first week"
• HLHS = classic answer for death in first week of life

Q3. Congestive cardiac failure diagnosed in an infant by:

Q4. Subdural effusion in meningitis is caused by:

• Haemophilus influenzae - classically the most common cause in older teaching (pre-Hib vaccine era)
• Pneumococcal meningitis also causes it

Q5. Hyaline membrane in the lung is composed of:

Q6. Universal Immunization Programme in children begins at birth and ends at:

Q7. First permanent tooth to erupt:

• 1st premolar: 10-11 years
• 1st incisor: 6-7 years (lower central incisor may erupt around same time)
• The classic answer is 1st molar

Q8. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is diagnosed by:

• Ferric chloride test: detects phenylpyruvic acid in urine (but appears later, less sensitive for screening)
• Guthrie test: detects elevated phenylalanine in blood from heel-prick, reliable by day 3-5

Q9. Which is NOT transmitted transplacentally (transplacental transmission)?

• Toxoplasma - YES, transplacental
• Cytomegalovirus - YES, transplacental (most common congenital viral infection)
• Herpes - primarily perinatal (during birth passage), NOT transplacental
• Hepatitis B - primarily perinatal at delivery, not truly transplacental

Q10. 5-year-old child with anaemia of long duration - investigation to be done:

• C) Peripheral smear - gives morphological diagnosis (iron deficiency, thalassemia, sickle cell, etc.)

Q11. Rubella maximally infects the fetus if mother contracts disease during which weeks:

• Weeks 1-8: cardiac defects
• Weeks 5-10: eye defects (cataracts, glaucoma)
• Weeks 5-6: maximum teratogenicity - cardiac defects most likely

Q12. Intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) can be caused by ALL EXCEPT:

• Nicotine - YES (smoking causes IUGR)
• Alcohol - YES (fetal alcohol syndrome, IUGR)
• Propranolol - YES (beta-blocker, causes fetal bradycardia and IUGR)
• Phenothiazine - NO (does NOT cause IUGR; causes neonatal extrapyramidal effects but not IUGR)

Q13. Persistent Moro's reflex at 12 weeks indicates:

• Moro reflex is normally present up to 3-4 months (12-16 weeks)
• At 12 weeks (3 months) it should still be present normally
• Persistence BEYOND 6 months = brain damage

Q14. Percentage of calories to be supplied by proteins:

• Proteins: 15-20% of total calories
• Fats: 25-35%
• Carbohydrates: 50-60%

Q15. Commonest cause of bronchiolitis:

Q16. Malignancies of childhood include:

• Wilm's tumour (nephroblastoma) - kidney, peak age 3-4 years
• Retinoblastoma - eye, most common intraocular tumour in children
• AML (Acute Myeloid Leukaemia) - blood malignancy in children

Q17. Most virulent variety of shigellosis caused by:

• S. dysenteriae = most virulent (produces Shiga toxin)
• S. sonnei = mildest
• S. flexneri = intermediate
• S. boydii = intermediate

Q18. Most virulent form of pneumococcus:

Q19. Treatment of bronchiolitis:

• Humidified oxygen - mainstay for hypoxemia
• Antibiotics - NOT indicated (viral cause)
• Steroids - NOT routinely recommended (no proven benefit in RSV bronchiolitis)
• Nebulized hypertonic saline may help; bronchodilators have limited evidence

Q20. Most common cause of meningitis in neonates:

• Group B Streptococcus (GBS) - most common overall in Western countries
• E. coli (K1 antigen) - most common gram-negative cause; in many Indian/developing country studies, E. coli is the most common cause of neonatal meningitis
• Standard Indian exam answer = E. coli

Q21. Most common complication of measles in children:

• ASOM (Acute Suppurative Otitis Media): common but NOT most common
• Bronchopneumonia: most common complication (~60% of measles deaths)
• Orchitis: complication of mumps, not measles
• Meningitis/encephalitis: serious but less common

Q22. Vaccine available against which type of pneumococcus:

• Pneumovax (PPSV23) and PCV13 cover the major virulent types
• The answer in standard Indian exam = D) Type A and C

Q23. Syphilis attacks the fetus after ... months:

• Congenital syphilis occurs after the 4th month of pregnancy
• Treatment before 4 months can prevent fetal infection

Summary Answer Sheet

CHILD HEALTH - MCQ Answer Key (Q24-Q48)

Q24. Child changes rattle from one hand to another at the age of:

• Transferring objects hand to hand = 6-7 months (not listed as option)
• "Rattle from one hand to another" in standard Indian paediatric exams = 1 year

Q25. Commonest complication of mumps in children is:

• Aseptic meningitis - most common complication overall (occurs in ~15% of mumps cases, often subclinical)
• Orchitis - common in post-pubertal males (25-38%), rare in children
• Pancreatitis - uncommon (~4%)
• Myocarditis - rare

Q26. In a 4-year-old child with ASOM, the infecting organism is likely to be:

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae - most common (~30-40%)
2. Haemophilus influenzae - second most common
3. Moraxella catarrhalis
4. Group A Streptococcus

Q27. Drug of choice initially in Juvenile Chronic Arthritis (JCA/JIA) is:

• First-line: Salicylates (Aspirin) - traditional first-line NSAID in Indian textbooks
• Note: In current practice, NSAIDs like naproxen/ibuprofen are preferred due to Reye's syndrome risk with aspirin; DMARDs (methotrexate) for refractory cases
• Prednisolone: used for systemic JIA or eye disease
• Phenylbutazone: largely obsolete

Q28. Commonest intracranial neoplasm in children is:

• Medulloblastoma - most common malignant brain tumour in children (arises in cerebellum/posterior fossa)
• Astrocytoma (glioma) - most common overall brain tumour in children (including low-grade)
• Meningioma - common in adults, rare in children
• Ependymoma - fourth ventricle in children

Q29. Congenital passive immunity is NOT observed in:

• Measles, mumps, rubella, polio, tetanus - YES, maternal IgG transferred

Q30. If a mother has had measles, her newborn baby is immune to this disease for:

• Measles vaccine is NOT given before 9 months (maternal antibodies would neutralize the vaccine virus)
• The immunity wanes by 4-6 months

Q31. One of the major problems associated with spina bifida with meningomyelocele is:

• Hydrocephalus in ~80-90% of cases (due to Arnold-Chiari malformation type II causing obstruction of CSF flow)
• Lower limb paralysis/weakness
• Bladder/bowel dysfunction
• Chiari II malformation

Q32. The common type of cerebral palsy is:

1. Spastic - 70-80% of all CP cases (upper motor neuron lesion, hypertonicity, scissors gait)
2. Dyskinetic/Athetoid - ~15%
3. Ataxic - ~5%
4. Atonic/Hypotonic - rare

Q33. The first and most common symptom of intussusception is:

• Pain (colicky abdominal pain) is the first and most prominent symptom - sudden onset, episodic, severe, causes the child to draw up legs and cry
• Vomiting follows
• Bloody mucoid stool is a later sign
• Abdominal mass (sausage-shaped) may be palpable

Q34. Infective diarrhoea in infancy is commonly due to:

• ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. coli) and EPEC (Enteropathogenic E. coli) are the most common bacterial causes of infantile diarrhoea worldwide, especially in developing countries
• Rotavirus is the most common viral cause
• Among the options given, E. coli is correct

Q35. In physiological jaundice in preterm infants, serum bilirubin does not generally exceed:

• Term infants: bilirubin generally does not exceed 12-13 mg/dL
• Preterm infants: bilirubin can be higher; physiological jaundice does not generally exceed 15 mg% (some sources say up to 15 mg%) -- however in standard Indian exam texts, the answer for preterm is 15 mg%

Q36. The hemoglobin to appear FIRST in the fetus is:

1. Hb Gowers 1 (ζ2ε2) - first embryonic Hb, appears at ~3-4 weeks of gestation (yolk sac)
2. Hb Gowers 2 (α2ε2) - early embryonic
3. Hb Portland (ζ2γ2) - embryonic
4. Hb F (α2γ2) - fetal hemoglobin (predominant from 2nd trimester)
5. Hb A (α2β2) - adult hemoglobin (increases after birth)
6. Hb A2 (α2δ2) - minor adult Hb

Q37. Commonest intracranial tumour in childhood is:

Q38. Dose of chloroquine at 4-10 years (child):

• Adult dose = 600 mg base initially
• Child dose = 10 mg/kg base (first dose), then 5 mg/kg at 6h, 24h, 48h
• For a child aged 4-10 years (approximately 15-30 kg): initial dose ≈ 300 mg (commonly cited in Indian exam contexts as the dose for school-age children)

Q39. Purpura is seen in:

• Miliary TB: does not typically cause purpura
• Niemann-Pick: no purpura
• CMV: can cause petechiae/thrombocytopenia but less classic than rubella
• Congenital rubella: classic purpura/petechiae ("blueberry muffin spots")

Q40. Organism in bronchiolitis is:

Q41. Infantile diarrhoea can be caused by ALL EXCEPT:

• Rotavirus - most common viral cause
• Reo virus - can cause diarrhoea
• Adeno virus - enteric adenoviruses (serotypes 40, 41) cause diarrhoea

Q42. Blood and mucus in stools are seen with ALL EXCEPT:

• E. histolytica - amebic dysentery: bloody mucoid stools (classic)
• Shigella shiga - bacillary dysentery: bloody mucoid stools (classic)
• E. coli (EIEC/EHEC) - can cause bloody diarrhoea

Q43. In unexplained ataxia in a child, ......... poisoning is a possibility:

• Cerebellar ataxia - hallmark of mercury toxicity
• Sensory disturbances, visual field constriction
• Dysarthria, tremor
• Minamata disease (methylmercury)
• Lead poisoning: encephalopathy, not primarily ataxia
• Arsenic: peripheral neuropathy, not ataxia
• Salicylate: tinnitus, hyperventilation

Q44. Kwashiorkor is characterised by ALL EXCEPT:

• Dermatitis (flaky paint/crazy paving dermatosis) - YES
• Edema (pitting pedal edema, pot belly, moon face) - YES
• Flag sign (alternating bands of light and dark hair due to intermittent protein deficiency) - YES
• Alertness - NO; children with kwashiorkor are apathetic, miserable, irritable, NOT alert. Apathy/misery is characteristic.

Q45. Which of the following infections has the MOST neurological complications:

• Measles - multiple neurological complications:
  • Post-infectious encephalomyelitis (1 in 1000)
  • Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) - fatal late complication
  • Measles inclusion body encephalitis
  • Febrile seizures
• Rubella: rare encephalitis
• Smallpox: encephalitis (rare)
• Scarlet fever: minimal CNS involvement

Q46. The clinical sign in measles which appears LAST is:

1. Prodrome: Fever + Cough + Coryza + Conjunctivitis (4 Cs) - begins first
2. Koplik's spots - appear on buccal mucosa 2-3 days into prodrome (before rash) - pathognomonic
3. Rash - appears last (3-4 days after prodrome onset), starts behind ears/hairline, spreads downward
4. Coryza and fever peak with rash

Q47. A child with Tetralogy of Fallot uses which of the following positions:

• Increases systemic vascular resistance (by kinking femoral arteries)
• Increases afterload, reducing right-to-left shunt
• Improves blood flow through the pulmonary circulation
• Relieves cyanosis and dyspnea

Q48. Which of the following is more frequently fractured at birth?

• Occurs in difficult deliveries (shoulder dystocia, instrumental delivery)
• The clavicle is the bone most commonly fractured during delivery
• Incidence: ~0.5% of births
• Usually greenstick fracture
• Heals rapidly with good prognosis

Summary Answer Sheet (Q24-Q48)

CHILD HEALTH - MCQ Answer Key (Q49-Q73)

Q49. Delayed dentition is most characteristic of:

• Mongolism (Down syndrome): teeth may erupt slightly late but not as classic
• Acromegaly: causes prognathism (jaw enlargement), teeth may space out
• Malnutrition: can cause some delay but not the hallmark feature
• Cretinism: most characteristic association with delayed dentition

Q50. A child with mental age of 7 and chronological age of 7 years has an IQ of:

Q51. The average incubation period of infectious hepatitis (Hepatitis A) is:

• Hepatitis A (infectious hepatitis): 15-50 days, average 28-30 days (~25-30 days)
• Hepatitis B: 60-180 days
• Hepatitis C: 14-180 days

Q52. The average fecal sodium excretion if rotavirus diarrhoea is:

• Rotavirus stool: sodium ~30-40 mEq/L (hypotonic, low sodium loss)
• This is why ORS (which has 75 mEq/L Na) is effective - sodium deficit is not massive
• Cholera stool: sodium ~90-130 mEq/L (very high sodium loss)

Q53. Child smiles at familiar persons at the age of:

• Social smile (responsive smile to a face/voice) = 6 weeks to 2 months (standard answer: 2 months)
• Smile in response to a face = 6 weeks
• The classic answer in Indian paediatric exams = 2 months

Q54. Breast feeding should begin ...... hours after delivery:

Q55. Head control is possible in an infant by ...... months:

• Partial head control (when prone, lifts head briefly): 1 month
• Complete head control (steady head when sitting supported): 3-4 months
• Standard exam answer: 3 months = head holding/head control achieved

Q56. Treatment of giardiasis is:

• Drug of choice: Metronidazole (400 mg TDS × 5-7 days in adults; 15 mg/kg/day in children)
• Alternative: Tinidazole (single dose), Nitazoxanide
• Mebendazole: for worms (roundworm, hookworm, pinworm)
• Piperazine: for roundworm and pinworm
• Bephenium: for hookworm

Q57. From which of the following is the highest percentage of iron absorbed?

• Haem iron (from meat/fish) = 15-35% absorption
• Non-haem iron (plant sources) = 2-20% absorption
• Spinach: contains iron but also oxalates which inhibit absorption (only ~2-5%)
• Egg: contains iron but phosvitin inhibits absorption (~3-5%)
• Soyabean: phytates inhibit iron absorption (~2-3%)
• Mutton (meat): haem iron, highest bioavailability ~20-30%

Q58. Which of the following inborn errors of metabolism is associated with mental retardation?

• Alkaptonuria: causes ochronosis, arthritis - NO mental retardation
• Homocystinuria: CAN cause intellectual disability (Marfanoid features + thrombosis + intellectual disability)
• Pentosuria: benign condition, NO clinical disease
• Galactosemia: accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate causes liver damage, cataracts, intellectual disability/mental retardation if untreated

Q59. Commonest virus causing diarrhoea in infants is:

Q60. Pincer grasp develops in an infant at:

• Palmar grasp: 4-5 months
• Scissors grasp: 6-7 months
• Inferior pincer grasp (thumb + index, immature): 8-9 months
• True/mature pincer grasp (tip of thumb + tip of index): 9-10 months (standard answer = 9-10 months ≈ one year in these options)

Q61. Myocarditis can be caused by:

• Diphtheria toxin causes direct myocardial damage (inhibits protein synthesis)
• Myocarditis occurs in ~20-30% of diphtheria cases
• Leading cause of death in diphtheria
• Causes heart block, arrhythmias
• Pertussis: mainly respiratory complications
• Measles: rare myocarditis
• Scorpion sting: causes cardiac toxicity/arrhythmias but not true myocarditis per se

Q62. Laryngeal papilloma:

• Caused by HPV types 6 and 11
• In children: typically multiple (juvenile onset recurrent respiratory papillomatosis)
• In adults: tends to be single
• C) Seen in children - YES, juvenile form is the most common laryngeal benign tumour in children
• D) Cautery is treatment - CO2 laser is the treatment (not simple cautery)

Q63. An infant begins to sit with support by ...... months:

• Sits with support (propped sitting): 6 months
• Sits without support (independently): 8-9 months
• Sits and pivots: 10 months

Q64. Pulmonary plethora is seen in ALL EXCEPT:

• VSD: L→R shunt = pulmonary plethora ✓
• ASD: L→R shunt = pulmonary plethora ✓
• PDA: L→R shunt = pulmonary plethora ✓
• Fallot's (TOF): Right-to-left shunt = pulmonary oligaemia (decreased vascularity), NOT plethora

Q65. In an infant with galactosemia, ...... should be avoided:

Q66. Commonest type of leukemia in children is:

• ALL = 75-80% of all childhood leukaemias (most common)
• AML = ~15-20%
• CLL = extremely rare in children
• CML = rare in children

Q67. A child starts crawling at:

• Crawling (commando crawl/reciprocal): 9 months (standard developmental milestone)
• Bear walk/creeping on all fours: 9-10 months
• Pulling to stand: 9-10 months

Q68. Meconium is excreted by a newborn till ...... day:

• First meconium: within 24-48 hours of birth
• Meconium stools last for: first 2-3 days
• Transition to normal stool: by day 3-4

Q69. Perioral rash, pigmentation of skin creases and neuritis is seen in deficiency of:

• Acrodermatitis enteropathica: perioral and perianal rash/dermatitis
• Skin crease pigmentation
• Neuritis/peripheral neuropathy
• Alopecia, poor wound healing, growth retardation, hypogonadism
• Copper deficiency: anaemia, osteoporosis
• Magnesium deficiency: tetany, muscle cramps
• Biotin deficiency: alopecia, dermatitis, but NOT perioral specifically with pigmented skin creases

Q70. Endocarditis is NOT seen in which of the following congenital heart diseases?

• ASD (Secundum type) = very low/no risk of IE - because it is a low-pressure, low-velocity defect. Prophylaxis is NOT recommended for isolated secundum ASD
• VSD: moderate risk (high-velocity jet = endocarditis risk)
• PDA: risk of endarteritis/endocarditis
• TOF: risk due to VSD component and turbulence

Q71. Rotavirus immunity in children occurs above ...... years:

Q72. The number of fontanelles present in a newborn child is:

• Anterior fontanelle (bregma) - largest, diamond-shaped
• Posterior fontanelle (lambda) - triangular, closes by 6-8 weeks
• 2 anterolateral fontanelles (sphenoidal)
• 2 posterolateral fontanelles (mastoid)

• "2 fontanelles" = anterior + posterior (most taught)
• "6 fontanelles" = all including lateral ones

Q73. The best position for examination of cardiac murmurs in a child is:

• Increases venous return, making murmurs louder
• Allows relaxed chest wall for auscultation
• Is the standard examination position for children

• Left lateral decubitus: mitral stenosis (accentuates)
• Sitting forward: aortic regurgitation
• Standing: decreases most murmurs

Summary Answer Sheet (Q49-Q73)

CHILD HEALTH - MCQ Answer Key (Q74-Q100)

Q74. Energy requirement of an infant is:

• Infant (0-12 months): 100-120 Kcal/kg/day (WHO/standard paediatric texts)
• The most cited figure in Indian exams: 110-120 Kcal/kg/day for infants
• Adults need ~30-35 Kcal/kg/day
• The high requirement reflects rapid growth, high metabolic rate

Q75. Which one is NOT unfavourable for fetal development:

• Herpes: congenital herpes
• Rubella: congenital rubella syndrome
• Alcohol: fetal alcohol syndrome
• Tetracycline: teeth staining, bone growth inhibition

Q76. Which of the following is NOT transmitted transplacentally:

• Syphilis: YES - classic transplacental (Treponema crosses placenta after 4 months)
• Rubella: YES - transplacental, causes CRS
• Toxoplasma: YES - transplacental, causes congenital toxoplasmosis
• Mumps: NO - mumps virus (paramyxovirus) is NOT known to be transmitted transplacentally. Mumps in pregnancy can cause spontaneous abortion but congenital mumps syndrome does not exist as a recognised entity.

Q77. Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) is characterised by ALL EXCEPT:

1. Gait ataxia (magnetic gait) - YES
2. Dementia (cognitive decline) - YES
3. Urinary incontinence - YES

Q78. Deficiency of which Vitamin is NOT seen in newborn:

• Vitamin K: YES - newborns have low Vitamin K (no gut flora, low stores) → Haemorrhagic Disease of Newborn (HDN). All newborns receive Vitamin K prophylaxis
• Vitamin D: YES - can be deficient, especially in exclusively breastfed infants
• Vitamin A: YES - can be deficient in premature infants
• Vitamin C: Breast milk contains adequate Vitamin C; NOT typically deficient in newborns

Q79. How many digits can a 5-year-old child remember:

• Age 3: 3 digits
• Age 4: 4 digits
• Age 5: 5 digits (the rule of thumb = digit span ≈ age in years up to ~7)
• Age 7: 5-7 digits

Q80. A child takes self decisions at the age of ...... years:

• 7 years = "Age of reason" / concrete operational stage begins
• A child can take independent/self decisions, understand consequences, and make logical choices by age 7
• This is also the age of school entry and growing independence

Q81. Fetal respiratory movements occur earliest at:

• FRM can be detected by ultrasound as early as 11-12 weeks of gestation
• They become more regular and coordinated as gestation progresses
• Between options 11 weeks (D) and 12 weeks (A), the standard answer in most Indian texts is 11 weeks or 12 weeks

Q82. Congenital Rubella does NOT cause which cardiac anomaly:

• PDA (Patent Ductus Arteriosus) - most common, CLASSIC
• Pulmonary Artery Stenosis (PS) - very characteristic of CRS
• VSD - can occur
• ASD - NOT typically associated with congenital rubella

Q83. IUGR is caused by ALL EXCEPT:

• Alcohol: YES - causes IUGR (fetal alcohol syndrome)
• Smoking: YES - major cause of IUGR (nicotine vasoconstriction)
• Chronic renal failure: YES - causes IUGR through hypertension and placental insufficiency
• Diabetes: Poorly controlled diabetes typically causes macrosomia (large baby), NOT IUGR. (Exception: severe diabetic vascular disease can rarely cause IUGR)

Q84. Which vitamin deficiency is NOT seen in newborn:

Q85. Calcium requirement of a growing school-age child is about:

• School-age children (6-12 years): 800-1000 mg/day = ~1.0 g/day
• Adolescents: 1200-1300 mg/day
• Infants: 400-600 mg/day

Q86. 99% of neonates void within:

• 90% void within 24 hours of birth
• 99% void within 48 hours of birth
• Failure to void within 48 hours warrants investigation for urinary tract obstruction/anomaly

Q87. A 5-year-old child can remember numbers up to how many digits:

Q88. The major site of active haemopoiesis in a foetus of 5 months is:

• Weeks 3-8 (yolk sac): Primitive haemopoiesis (yolk sac phase)
• Weeks 6 - 6 months: LIVER is the primary site (hepatic phase) - dominant at 5 months
• Spleen: minor role (months 3-7)
• Bone marrow: takes over from ~5-6 months onward, dominant after birth

Q89. Pincer grasp is seen at:

• Pincer grasp (inferior pincer): 8-9 months ≈ 36 weeks post-natal
• True/mature pincer grasp: 9-10 months

Q90. Abstract thinking occurs at the age of:

• Concrete operational: 7-11 years (logical thinking about concrete objects)
• Formal operational: 11-12 years onwards - abstract, hypothetical thinking

Q91. Cerebral palsy which manifests after the age of one year is most often:

• Spastic CP: usually evident by 6-12 months (hypertonicity, scissoring)
• Ataxic CP: often manifests later, typically after 1 year of age (when balance and coordination demands increase as the child attempts to walk)
• Dyskinetic/Athetoid: may manifest after 1-2 years
• Ataxic CP is the type most commonly recognised after 1 year

Q92. General incidence of congenital anomalies in newborns is:

• Major congenital anomalies: ~2-3% of all live births
• Minor anomalies: higher
• Standard answer in textbooks: ~3% of newborns have at least one significant congenital anomaly

Q93. At birth, the normal heart rate is:

• Newborn (0-1 month): 100-160 bpm (average ~130 bpm)
• The most cited normal range for a newborn at birth: 110-150 bpm
• Some sources: 100-180 bpm (wide range)

Q94. Retinoblastoma is bilateral in:

• Bilateral retinoblastoma: occurs in approximately 25-30% of cases
• Bilateral = always hereditary (germline RB1 mutation)
• Unilateral: ~70-75% (may be hereditary or sporadic)
• Bilateral cases are typically diagnosed at a younger age

Q95. Colic generally disappears by age:

• Crying > 3 hours/day, > 3 days/week, for > 3 weeks
• Typically resolves spontaneously by 3-4 months of age
• Peak at 6-8 weeks, resolves by 3-4 months

Q96. The antibiotic of choice for pertussis (Whooping cough) is:

• Drug of choice: Erythromycin (or Azithromycin in current practice)
• Erythromycin reduces infectivity and duration if given early (catarrhal phase)
• Also used for prophylaxis in contacts
• Penicillin/Ampicillin: NOT effective against Bordetella

Q97. Acute stage of poliomyelitis lasts for:

• Acute phase (paralytic): 2-4 weeks - maximum paralysis develops
• Recovery phase: up to 2 years
• Residual/chronic phase: permanent deficits

Q98. Increase in length in the first year of life is:

• Birth length: ~50 cm
• First year of life: increases by approximately 25 cm (to reach ~75 cm by 1 year)
• Second year: ~12 cm gain
• Subsequent years: ~5-7 cm/year

Q99. Scratch tests are best read within:

• Read at 15-20 minutes (immediate hypersensitivity reaction - wheal and flare)
• Intradermal tests: also read at 15-20 minutes for immediate reaction
• Late-phase: 6-24 hours (separate reading)

Q100. The bone most frequently fractured during delivery is:

Summary Answer Sheet (Q74-Q100)

• Are you referring to Question 1 from the Child Health paper (burns percentage)?
• Do you want me to re-explain a specific answer?
• Did you mean to send an image or additional questions?

• All 100 Questions (Q1-Q100) with correct answers and detailed explanations
• Color-coded layout - question numbers in blue, answers in green
• Quick Reference Answer Sheet at the end - a compact 4-column table showing all 100 answers at a glance
• Covers all topics: Burns, CHD, Developmental milestones, Infections, Nutrition, Haematology, Neurology, Vaccines, and more