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Provide answers for all mcqs

Here are the answers to all 20 MCQs from the ENT (Otorhinolaryngology) test:

MCQ TEST (20) - Answers

1. A patient with CSOM develops vertigo induced by pressure over tragus: B. Lateral semicircular canal fistula
  • Pressure over the tragus (Tragal sign / Fistula test positive) in CSOM indicates a perilymph fistula, most commonly of the lateral (horizontal) semicircular canal eroded by cholesteatoma.

2. Commonest organism causing malignant otitis externa: C. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is responsible for >95% of cases of malignant (necrotizing) otitis externa, typically in elderly diabetics.

3. Earliest symptom in acoustic neuroma: C. Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss with tinnitus
  • The earliest and most common presenting symptom is unilateral progressive SNHL, often accompanied by tinnitus. Facial palsy and vertigo are late features.

4. In a child with unilateral foul-smelling nasal discharge: D. Foreign body nose
  • Unilateral, foul-smelling, purulent nasal discharge in a child is pathognomonic of a nasal foreign body until proven otherwise.

5. Most common predisposing condition for Pott's puffy tumour: B. Frontal sinusitis
  • Pott's puffy tumour (subperiosteal abscess with osteomyelitis of the frontal bone) is a complication of frontal sinusitis.

6. Which is NOT a feature of Meniere's disease: D. Conductive hearing loss
  • Meniere's disease causes sensorineural (endolymphatic hydrops) hearing loss, NOT conductive. The classic triad is episodic vertigo + fluctuating SNHL + tinnitus.

7. CSF rhinorrhea is most commonly confirmed by: C. Beta-2 transferrin assay
  • Beta-2 transferrin (also called tau protein/beta-trace protein test) is the gold standard confirmatory test for CSF rhinorrhea. It is highly specific to CSF and not found in serum or nasal secretions.

8. Conductive hearing loss + paracusis Willis + absent stapedial reflex + normal tympanic membrane: C. Otosclerosis
  • This is the classic picture of otosclerosis: conductive HL with normal TM, absent stapedial reflex, paracusis Willisii (hearing better in noisy environments), and type As tympanogram.

9. Rinne's test is positive in: B. Sensorineural hearing loss
  • Rinne positive = AC > BC, which is normal and also seen in SNHL. Rinne negative (BC > AC) is seen in conductive hearing loss and wax impaction.

10. Allergic rhinitis is a: A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
  • Allergic rhinitis is an IgE-mediated (Type I / immediate hypersensitivity) reaction involving mast cell degranulation upon allergen exposure.

11. Investigation of choice for cholesteatoma: A. HRCT Temporal bone
  • High-Resolution CT (HRCT) of the temporal bone is the investigation of choice for evaluating the extent of cholesteatoma, bony erosion, and surgical planning.

12. Hallmark symptom of allergic rhinitis: A. Sneezing
  • Paroxysmal sneezing is the hallmark symptom of allergic rhinitis, along with watery rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, and itching.

13. Nerve supply of tensor tympani muscle: C. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve (V3)
  • Tensor tympani is supplied by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of V3 (mandibular division of trigeminal nerve). Memory: "Tensor tympani = Trigeminal."

14. The Eustachian tube opens into: C. Nasopharynx
  • The pharyngeal end of the Eustachian tube opens into the lateral wall of the nasopharynx at the level of the inferior turbinate.

15. Test used to assess cochlear outer hair cell function: C. OAE (Otoacoustic Emissions)
  • OAEs are generated by the outer hair cells (OHCs) of the cochlea and are the direct test of OHC function. Used in neonatal hearing screening.

16. Type B tympanogram is typically seen in: B. Otitis media with effusion
  • Type B (flat) tympanogram indicates no movement of the tympanic membrane - classic for middle ear effusion (glue ear / OME). Also seen in TM perforation, but OME is the classic answer.

17. Commonest site of CSF rhinorrhoea: B. Cribriform plate
  • The cribriform plate of the ethmoid is the thinnest and most vulnerable part of the anterior skull base, making it the most common site of CSF rhinorrhoea.

18. Hennebert's sign is classically associated with: C. Labyrinthine fistula
  • Hennebert's sign = nystagmus and vertigo induced by pressure changes in the external ear canal (via tragus pressure or pneumatic otoscopy), classically associated with perilymph (labyrinthine) fistula. Also described in congenital syphilis.

19. Samter's triad consists of: A. Asthma - nasal polyp - aspirin sensitivity
  • Samter's triad (Aspirin Exacerbated Respiratory Disease / AERD) = Asthma + Nasal polyposis + Aspirin (NSAID) sensitivity.

20. Cottle's test is used to assess: D. Nasal valve
  • Cottle's test: cheek is pulled laterally to open the nasal valve area. If breathing improves, the test is positive, indicating nasal valve stenosis/collapse.

Quick Summary Table

QAnswer
1B - Lateral semicircular canal fistula
2C - Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
3C - Unilateral SNHL with tinnitus
4D - Foreign body nose
5B - Frontal sinusitis
6D - Conductive hearing loss
7C - Beta-2 transferrin assay
8C - Otosclerosis
9B - Sensorineural hearing loss
10A - Type I hypersensitivity
11A - HRCT Temporal bone
12A - Sneezing
13C - V3 (mandibular nerve)
14C - Nasopharynx
15C - OAE
16B - Otitis media with effusion
17B - Cribriform plate
18C - Labyrinthine fistula
19A - Asthma + nasal polyp + aspirin sensitivity
20D - Nasal valve
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Provide answers according to weightage of all questions

This is a Third MBBS Part-2 ENT examination paper (Total: 50 marks) with Short Notes (30 marks) + MCQs (20 marks). I'll provide complete answers for all questions according to their weightage.

THIRD MBBS PART-2 ENT EXAMINATION

Total Marks: 50


Q1. WRITE SHORT NOTES (ANY 2) — 10 Marks

(Each question = 5 marks: ~2 marks per sub-part A, B, C)

Q1.1 — 55-year-old hypertensive male, profuse right-sided epistaxis, BP 190/110, on aspirin

A. Probable Diagnosis and Causes (2 marks)

Diagnosis: Posterior Epistaxis (likely from Woodruff's plexus / sphenopalatine artery territory)
Causes in this patient (Etiological framework):
Local causes:
  • Idiopathic (most common overall)
  • Nasal trauma / digital trauma
  • Septal spur
Systemic causes (relevant here):
  • Hypertension - BP 190/110 causes sustained high-pressure bleeding that does not stop with simple pinching (key in this case)
  • Aspirin use - inhibits COX-1, impairs platelet aggregation (thromboxane A2 reduction), prolongs bleeding
  • Arteriosclerosis (likely in a 55-year-old hypertensive)
  • Coagulopathy secondary to antiplatelet therapy

B. Blood Supply of Nasal Septum with Labelled Diagram (2 marks)

Blood supply of nasal septum (Little's area / Kiesselbach's plexus anteriorly):
Arteries supplying the nasal septum:
ArteryOriginArea supplied
Anterior ethmoidal arteryOphthalmic artery (ICA)Antero-superior septum
Posterior ethmoidal arteryOphthalmic artery (ICA)Postero-superior septum
Sphenopalatine arteryMaxillary artery (ECA)Posterior septum (main supply)
Greater palatine arteryMaxillary artery (ECA)Inferior septum
Superior labial arteryFacial artery (ECA)Antero-inferior septum
Kiesselbach's plexus (Little's area): Anastomosis of all 5 arteries on the antero-inferior septum - commonest site of anterior epistaxis.
Woodruff's plexus: Posterior nasal wall, branches of sphenopalatine and ascending pharyngeal arteries - site of posterior epistaxis (as in this case).
DIAGRAM (Lateral nasal wall - septal surface):
         Anterior ethmoidal a. ──┐
         Posterior ethmoidal a. ─┤
                                  ├── KIESSELBACH'S PLEXUS
         Sphenopalatine a. ──────┤    (Little's area - antero-inferior septum)
         Greater palatine a. ────┤
         Superior labial a. ─────┘

C. Stepwise Management (2 marks)

Step 1 - First Aid / Resuscitation:
  • Sit patient upright, head slightly forward
  • Pinch soft part of nose (Trotter's method) for 10-15 min
  • IV access, blood investigations: CBC, PT/INR, BT/CT
  • Control BP - IV labetalol / oral antihypertensives (critical in this patient)
  • Stop aspirin / antiplatelet agents
Step 2 - Anterior Rhinoscopy / Identify bleeding point:
  • Nasal suction, good illumination
  • If anterior bleeding point seen: Chemical cautery (silver nitrate) or electrical cautery
Step 3 - Anterior Nasal Packing:
  • BIPP (Bismuth Iodoform Paraffin Paste) ribbon gauze
  • Remains for 24-48 hours
  • Antibiotic cover to prevent sinusitis/toxic shock
Step 4 - Posterior Nasal Packing (if above fails):
  • Brighton balloon / Foley catheter (12-14 Fr)
  • Epistat balloon catheter
  • Hospitalize, monitor vitals
Step 5 - Surgical / Interventional:
  • Endoscopic sphenopalatine artery ligation (gold standard for posterior epistaxis)
  • Anterior ethmoidal artery ligation (for anterior/superior bleeds)
  • Angiographic embolization (if surgical candidate is poor)
Step 6 - Treat underlying cause:
  • Antihypertensive therapy (long-term)
  • Haematology referral for coagulation workup
  • Consider switching from aspirin if clinically feasible

Q1.2 — 9-year-old boy, AOM not responding, painful swelling behind ear, pinna displaced forward and downward

A. Most Likely Diagnosis (1 mark)

Acute Mastoiditis with Subperiosteal Abscess
Classic features present:
  • Incomplete treatment of AOM
  • Post-auricular painful swelling with redness
  • Pinna displaced forward and downward/outward (pathognomonic - due to subperiosteal abscess pushing the auricle)
  • Fever, ear pain, purulent discharge

B. Etiopathogenesis and Clinical Features (2 marks)

Etiopathogenesis:
  • Acute otitis media → infection spreads to mastoid air cells (mastoiditis always accompanies AOM) → inadequate treatment → coalescence of air cells (coalescent mastoiditis) → cortex eroded → pus collects under periosteum → Subperiosteal abscess
Organisms: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas (in treated cases)
Clinical Features:
Symptoms:
  • High fever, toxicity
  • Severe otalgia (earache)
  • Purulent otorrhoea
  • Decreased hearing
  • Post-auricular pain and swelling
Signs:
  • Post-auricular swelling: red, tender, fluctuant
  • Pinna pushed forward, downward, and outward (key sign)
  • Post-auricular crease (sulcus) obliterated
  • Sagging of postero-superior meatal wall
  • Perforated TM with pulsatile discharge
Complications if untreated:
  • Bezold's abscess (via mastoid tip into neck)
  • Meningitis, brain abscess
  • Lateral sinus thrombosis
  • Facial nerve palsy
  • Labyrinthitis

C. Investigation and Management (2 marks)

Investigations:
  • HRCT Temporal bone - investigation of choice; shows coalescent mastoiditis, bone erosion, abscess
  • Pure tone audiogram
  • CBC, CRP, ESR
  • Blood culture
  • Ear swab for culture and sensitivity
  • X-ray mastoid (Schuller's view) - shows haziness of air cells (less used now)
Management:
Medical:
  • Hospitalization, IV antibiotics: IV Amoxicillin-clavulanate or Cefotaxime + Metronidazole
  • IV fluids, antipyretics, analgesics
  • Myringotomy + grommet (ear tube) for drainage
Surgical:
  • Cortical mastoidectomy (Schwartze operation) - definitive treatment
    • Post-auricular incision
    • Exenteration of all diseased mastoid air cells
    • Drainage of subperiosteal abscess
  • If intracranial complications: modified radical mastoidectomy

Q1.3 — 17-year-old male, progressive unilateral nasal obstruction, blood-stained discharge, cheek fullness, mass on endoscopy

A. Most Likely Diagnosis (1 mark)

Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA)
Key indicators:
  • Young male (almost exclusively in adolescent males)
  • Progressive unilateral nasal obstruction
  • Recurrent blood-stained / epistaxis
  • Mass in posterior nasal cavity on endoscopy
  • Cheek fullness (extension into pterygopalatine fossa)
  • Treated multiple times for "sinusitis" with no improvement

B. Clinical Features and Investigations (2 marks)

Clinical Features:
Symptoms:
  • Progressive unilateral (later bilateral) nasal obstruction
  • Recurrent severe epistaxis (hallmark)
  • Nasal discharge (blood-stained)
  • Headache, cheek fullness (pterygopalatine fossa extension)
  • Proptosis (orbital extension)
  • Diplopia, visual changes (advanced)
  • Conductive hearing loss (Eustachian tube blockage)
  • Nasal twang in voice
Signs:
  • Greyish-white/pink, smooth, firm, non-tender mass on endoscopy
  • Arises from posterior nasal wall near sphenopalatine foramen
  • DO NOT BIOPSY (risk of severe haemorrhage - highly vascular tumour)
  • Holman-Miller sign on lateral X-ray: anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus
Investigations:
  • MRI with contrast - investigation of choice; shows "salt and pepper" appearance (due to flow voids + contrast enhancement); shows extent
  • CT scan - shows bone erosion, Holman-Miller sign
  • Angiography (DSA) - defines feeding vessels (mainly internal maxillary artery / sphenopalatine artery); also used for pre-operative embolization
  • Biopsy is CONTRAINDICATED in clinic
  • Sessons/Andrews staging on imaging

C. Management (2 marks)

Staging (Andrews/Sessons system used):
  • Stage I: Limited to nasopharynx
  • Stage II: Extension to paranasal sinuses / pterygopalatine fossa
  • Stage III: Orbital / infratemporal fossa extension
  • Stage IV: Intracranial extension
Treatment:
Pre-operative embolization:
  • Done 24-48 hours before surgery
  • Reduces intraoperative blood loss significantly
Surgical (definitive treatment):
  • Endoscopic resection - preferred for Stage I and II (modern approach)
  • Lateral rhinotomy / midfacial degloving - for Stage II-III
  • Infratemporal fossa approach - for Stage III-IV
  • Le Fort I osteotomy for large tumors
Adjuvant:
  • Hormonal therapy (testosterone antagonists - flutamide): used in inoperable/recurrent cases
  • Radiotherapy: for intracranial extension or recurrent inoperable disease (Stage IV)
Prognosis:
  • May spontaneously regress after puberty
  • Recurrence rate: 20-25% (due to residual tumour at skull base)

Q2. WRITE SHORT NOTES (ANY 4) — 20 Marks

(Each = 5 marks)

1. Atrophic Rhinitis (5 marks)

Definition: A chronic nasal condition characterized by progressive atrophy of the nasal mucosa, turbinates, and bony nasal walls, with presence of crusts and foul smell (ozaena).
Types:
  • Primary (Ozaena): Unknown etiology; more common in females, young adults, developing countries
  • Secondary: Post-surgical (turbinate resection), post-infective, granulomatous diseases (syphilis, leprosy, sarcoidosis), irradiation
Etiology / Pathogenesis:
  • Klebsiella ozaenae (primary causative organism in primary type)
  • Nutritional deficiency (iron, Vitamin A, D)
  • Endocrine factors (puberty, menstruation)
  • Autonomic imbalance
  • Hereditary / racial factors
Pathology: Columnar ciliated epithelium → stratified squamous metaplasia; endarteritis/periarteritis of vessels → mucosal atrophy; turbinate resorption
Clinical Features:
  • Nasal obstruction (paradoxical - despite wide nasal cavity, patient feels blocked due to absent air turbulence)
  • Anosmia / Hyposmia
  • Foul smell (ozaena) - patient unaware due to anosmia; friends/family notice
  • Greenish-black dry crusts lining nasal cavity
  • Epistaxis on crust removal
  • Wide nasal cavity ("empty nose syndrome")
  • Atrophic turbinates
Investigations:
  • Nasal endoscopy: wide nasal cavity, atrophic turbinates, crusts
  • CT PNS: shows widened nasal cavity, thinned turbinates
  • Culture: Klebsiella ozaenae
  • CBC, serum iron, Vitamin A levels
Management:
Medical:
  • Nasal irrigation with alkaline douche (sodium bicarbonate + sodium chloride + sodium biborate in warm water) - removes crusts
  • 25% glucose in glycerine nasal drops - inhibits proteolytic organisms
  • Oestrogen nasal drops / sprays
  • Systemic antibiotics: Rifampicin, Ciprofloxacin (anti-Klebsiella)
  • Iron supplementation, Vitamin A
Surgical:
  • Young's operation: Closure of both nostrils by mucosal flaps for 6 months → reduces airflow → allows mucosal regeneration; nostrils re-opened later
  • Submucosal injection of Teflon/paraffin to narrow nasal cavity
  • Turbinate implants (cartilage, bone, fat)

2. Ototoxic Drugs - Enlist and Describe One (5 marks)

Definition: Drugs that cause damage to the cochlea (auditory toxicity) and/or vestibular system.
Classification of Ototoxic Drugs:
ClassExamples
Aminoglycoside antibioticsGentamicin, Streptomycin, Amikacin, Tobramycin, Neomycin
Loop diureticsFurosemide, Ethacrynic acid
SalicylatesAspirin (high dose)
AntimalarialsQuinine, Chloroquine
AntineoplasticsCisplatin, Carboplatin
OthersVancomycin, Erythromycin (high dose)
Memory: "PLACE" - Platinum compounds, Loop diuretics, Aminoglycosides, Cisplatin, Erythromycin

Detailed Description: Aminoglycoside Ototoxicity (Gentamicin)

Mechanism:
  • Aminoglycosides enter the cochlear outer hair cells (OHCs) via mechano-electrical transducer channels
  • Generate reactive oxygen species (ROS) / free radicals → oxidative stress
  • Damage the stria vascularis and outer hair cells of the basal turn (high-frequency region first)
  • Gentamicin is primarily vestibulotoxic (vestibular hair cells preferentially)
  • Streptomycin, Amikacin are primarily cochleotoxic
  • Neomycin is most cochleotoxic (used topically only)
Risk Factors:
  • Pre-existing renal impairment (reduced excretion → accumulation)
  • High doses, prolonged use
  • Concomitant loop diuretics (synergistic toxicity)
  • Genetic susceptibility: mitochondrial mutation 1555A>G (12S rRNA gene)
  • Age extremes (neonates, elderly)
  • Prior noise exposure
Clinical Features:
  • High-frequency SNHL (4000-8000 Hz first) → progressive
  • Tinnitus (often the first symptom)
  • Vertigo, imbalance, oscillopsia (gentamicin vestibulotoxicity)
  • Dandy's syndrome (bilateral vestibular failure): oscillopsia + ataxia + SNHL
Monitoring:
  • Baseline and serial pure tone audiometry (PTA) - monitoring 8-12 kHz (ultra-high frequencies)
  • Serum drug levels (trough/peak monitoring)
  • Renal function tests
Prevention:
  • Use lowest effective dose, shortest duration
  • Once-daily dosing (less nephrotoxic and ototoxic than multiple daily doses)
  • Avoid concurrent loop diuretics
  • N-acetylcysteine / antioxidants (investigational)
  • Genetic screening (1555A>G mutation) before aminoglycoside use
Treatment:
  • Discontinue drug immediately on any sign of ototoxicity
  • Cochlear implantation for severe bilateral SNHL
  • Vestibular rehabilitation for gentamicin vestibulotoxicity
  • Hearing aids

3. Pure Tone Audiogram (5 marks)

Definition: A pure tone audiogram (PTA) is a subjective, behavioural hearing test that measures the threshold of hearing at different frequencies (250-8000 Hz) for both air conduction and bone conduction.
Equipment: Audiometer (generates pure tones at calibrated intensities)
Symbols used:
Right earLeft ear
Air conductionO (red)X (blue)
Bone conduction (unmasked)<>
Bone conduction (masked)[]
No response
Normal values: Hearing threshold 0-25 dB HL at all frequencies (adults)
Degree of hearing loss:
dB HLDegree
26-40Mild
41-55Moderate
56-70Moderately severe
71-90Severe
>90Profound
Types of Audiogram Patterns:
1. Conductive Hearing Loss:
  • Air conduction thresholds elevated (>25 dB)
  • Bone conduction thresholds normal (0-25 dB)
  • Air-Bone Gap (ABG) ≥15 dB present
  • Causes: Wax, CSOM, otosclerosis, OME
2. Sensorineural Hearing Loss:
  • Both air and bone conduction elevated equally
  • No air-bone gap
  • Causes: Noise-induced, presbyacusis, Meniere's, ototoxicity
3. Mixed Hearing Loss:
  • Both AC and BC elevated
  • Air-bone gap present (BC better than AC)
  • Causes: CSOM with labyrinthitis, otosclerosis with cochlear involvement
Specific Patterns:
  • Noise-induced HL: Characteristic notch at 4000 Hz (4kHz dip)
  • Meniere's disease: Low-frequency SNHL (rising audiogram) early; flat later
  • Otosclerosis: Carhart's notch at 2000 Hz on bone conduction
  • Presbyacusis: High-frequency SNHL, bilateral, symmetrical (downsloping curve)
Pure Tone Average (PTA): PTA = (500 + 1000 + 2000 Hz thresholds) ÷ 3 (Speech frequencies used for hearing aid candidacy, medicolegal purposes)

4. Rhinosporidiosis (5 marks)

Definition: A chronic granulomatous infection of the mucous membranes (predominantly nasal), caused by Rhinosporidium seeberi.
Causative Organism:
  • Rhinosporidium seeberi
  • Currently classified as a Mesomycetozoa (between fungi and animals; not a true fungus)
  • Forms large sporangia (up to 300-350 μm) filled with endospores
  • Cannot be cultured in vitro
Epidemiology:
  • Endemic in South Asia: India (Tamil Nadu), Sri Lanka most commonly
  • Rural populations, bathing in ponds/stagnant water
  • More common in males; all age groups
  • Transmission: inoculation through nasal mucosa while bathing in contaminated water
Pathology:
  • Organism enters through microabrasion of nasal mucosa
  • Forms large sporangia in subepithelial tissue
  • Polypoidal granulomatous masses with sporangia at various stages
  • Strawberry-like surface due to white dots (sporangia visible through mucosa)
Clinical Features:
Nasal (most common - 70%):
  • Unilateral nasal obstruction (progressive)
  • Epistaxis (recurrent)
  • Pink/red polypoidal mass hanging from nasal cavity (sometimes visible at nostril)
  • Soft, friable, pedunculated, strawberry-like surface (white dots = sporangia)
  • Nasal discharge
Other sites (less common):
  • Conjunctiva/lacrimal sac (second most common)
  • Oropharynx, larynx, urethra, penis, vagina, skin
Diagnosis:
  • Clinical appearance (strawberry polyp) is characteristic
  • Histopathology - definitive diagnosis:
    • Large sporangia (200-350 μm) at various maturation stages
    • Mature sporangia contain thousands of endospores
    • Surrounding granulomatous reaction
  • Nasal endoscopy: friable, pedunculated polyp
  • CT/MRI: extent of disease
Treatment:
Surgical (definitive):
  • Wide local excision with electrocautery of base - treatment of choice
  • Diathermy of the base essential to destroy endospores and prevent recurrence
  • Endoscopic removal preferred currently
  • Recurrence rate: 10-15%
Medical (adjuvant):
  • Dapsone (50-100 mg/day) - inhibits sporangia maturation; used as adjuvant to prevent recurrence
  • No proven curative medical therapy alone
Complications:
  • Recurrence (if base not adequately cauterized)
  • Disseminated rhinosporidiosis (rare, immunocompromised)

5. Bell's Palsy (5 marks)

Definition: Bell's palsy is an acute, unilateral, idiopathic, lower motor neuron (LMN) facial nerve palsy of sudden onset, caused by inflammation and edema of the facial nerve within the stylomastoid foramen/fallopian canal.
Etiology:
  • Idiopathic (by definition), but likely viral (HSV-1 reactivation) - most accepted theory
  • Inflammation → edema → nerve compression within the bony fallopian canal → ischemia → demyelination
  • Other associations: Herpes zoster (Ramsay Hunt - NOT Bell's), pregnancy, diabetes, hypertension
Clinical Features:
LMN Facial Palsy (ALL divisions affected):
  • Inability to close eye (Lagophthalmos) - most worrying feature (corneal exposure)
  • Bell's phenomenon (upward rolling of eyeball on attempted eye closure)
  • Flattening of nasolabial fold
  • Drooping of angle of mouth
  • Inability to raise eyebrow (distinguishes from UMN palsy)
  • Asymmetrical smile, inability to whistle/puff cheeks
Additional features depending on site of lesion:
  • Above geniculate ganglion: Loss of taste (anterior 2/3 tongue via chorda tympani) + hyperacusis (stapedius branch) + reduced lacrimation (greater petrosal nerve)
  • Below stylomastoid foramen: Pure motor palsy only
Onset: Sudden (hours); may have prodrome of pain behind ear (mastoid pain)
Grading: House-Brackmann Scale (I-VI)
  • Grade I: Normal
  • Grade VI: Complete paralysis, no movement
Investigations:
  • Clinical diagnosis primarily
  • Topognostic tests (Schirmer's, stapedial reflex, taste testing) - to localize level of lesion
  • EMG/Nerve conduction studies - prognosis; done after 72 hours
  • CT/MRI temporal bone (to rule out other causes)
  • Blood: FBS, CBC (rule out diabetes, Lyme disease)
Differential Diagnosis: Ramsay Hunt syndrome (VZV), cholesteatoma, parotid tumour, acoustic neuroma, Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
Management:
Medical:
  • Oral prednisolone (1 mg/kg/day for 10 days, then taper) - started within 72 hours of onset; improves recovery rate
  • Acyclovir/Valacyclovir (if started within 72 hours): controversial as monotherapy; used with steroids in severe cases
  • Eye care: Artificial tears (day), eye lubricant ointment (night), protective spectacles, taping eye shut at night (most important to prevent exposure keratitis)
Physiotherapy:
  • Facial exercises
  • Electrical stimulation (controversial)
Surgical (rare):
  • Facial nerve decompression (for complete paralysis with poor prognostic EMG findings, within 14 days)
  • Tarsorrhaphy (for corneal exposure not controlled medically)
  • Nerve grafting (late cases)
Prognosis:
  • 80-85% recover completely without treatment
  • Recovery begins within 3-6 months
  • Poor prognostic signs: complete palsy, advancing age, hyperacusis, diabetes, no recovery by 3 weeks, denervation on EMG

MCQ ANSWERS (20 marks - 1 mark each, No Negative Marking)

QAnswerKey Point
1BLateral semicircular canal fistula (Tragal pressure → fistula test +ve in CSOM)
2CPseudomonas aeruginosa (>95% malignant OE)
3CUnilateral SNHL + tinnitus (earliest in acoustic neuroma)
4DForeign body nose (unilateral foul-smelling discharge in child)
5BFrontal sinusitis (Pott's puffy tumour)
6DConductive HL (NOT a feature - Meniere's = SNHL)
7CBeta-2 transferrin assay (gold standard for CSF rhinorrhoea)
8COtosclerosis (CHL + paracusis Willis + absent stapedial reflex + normal TM)
9BSensorineural hearing loss (Rinne positive = AC>BC)
10AType I hypersensitivity (IgE-mediated)
11AHRCT Temporal bone (cholesteatoma investigation of choice)
12ASneezing (hallmark of allergic rhinitis)
13CV3 mandibular nerve (tensor tympani)
14CNasopharynx (Eustachian tube opening)
15COAE (outer hair cell function)
16BOtitis media with effusion (type B tympanogram)
17BCribriform plate (commonest site CSF rhinorrhoea)
18CLabyrinthine fistula (Hennebert's sign)
19AAsthma + nasal polyp + aspirin sensitivity (Samter's triad)
20DNasal valve (Cottle's test)

Exam tip: For Q1, attempt the case with the most familiar topic first. For Q2, the five topics listed (atrophic rhinitis, ototoxics, PTA, rhinosporidiosis, Bell's palsy) are all high-yield standard ENT topics - attempt all 4 best ones. MCQs carry 1 mark each with no negative marking, so attempt all 20.
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